I’m sorry to be back & understand if my previous questions preclude me from asking anything more. The cost of additional peace of mind is worth risking as a donation to ASHA. Both Dr. Hook & Dr. Handsfield have said my test results prove I’ve never had syphilis and therefore couldn’t have infected my spouse. I’d like to ask how my results prove this if there’s a possibility of seroreversion prior to getting tested with the test necessary to show past infection. Two things I feel I wasn’t clear about in my previous questions: 1. While I mentioned I’ve taken antibiotics in the years since my exposures, I wasn’t specific that I did also take antibiotics (5 days of 500 mg amoxicillin at 3x/day) in 2008 (exposures from 06-10) - so there’s a possibility I might’ve taken close to an exposure. 2. I didn’t have treponema-specific testing (including those from blood donations) until over 5 years after my last encounter, so outside of the 2-3 years when seroreversion can occur. How can you (or I) be confident that I didn’t acquire syphilis at some point from my many low-risk exposures, infect my spouse, serorevert from antibiotic usage, and test negative years later? Thank you.