I am on a business trip and I made an error and visited a massage parlour where thet offer extra services.

From what i can see elsewhere on the forum, I don't think I put myself at any risk for STDs/HIV, but just wanted to make sure.

Masseuse was an asian female.

What happened (not necessarily in this order as some things were repeated at different times):

There was, however, no oral, vaginal or anal sex. She was clothed from the waist down throughout.

Only other thing to note was that I'd had a routine blood test 24 hours before; but I think the needle would would effectively be healed by that point?

I just want to confirm that I am correct, based on the above: there is no risk entailed for any STDs/HIV; no need for testing or other actions? Thank you.

Your self assessment of the absence of HIV/STD risk is correct. STDs are not transmitted by any of the specific kinds of contact you describe. And having a recent needle stick for blood draw (or any other wound of any kind) would not elevate the risk of infection with HIV or any other blood borne infection, or of any STD -- even if infected blood or genital fluids were in contact with the site. [Typo corrected, "not" inserted] And exposure to saliva is always little or no risk for any STD.

Accordingly you have also correctly predicted that I do not advise any testing of any kind. And by extension, there is no need to alter your sexual practices with your wife. You will not put her at risk for anything.

I hope these comments are helpful. Let me know if anything isn't clear.

HHH, MD

A few quick clarifications:

Just confirming this should be 'not elevate'?

2) Just double-checking that the fact the masseuse was on her period does not impact anything, given the mutual masturbation that occured directly/under clothing as well as through clothing.

3) So frottage/Mutual Masturbation are zero-risk? And if done through underwear would be even lower than zero (if that were possible?) as fabric is an effective barrier?

4) Basicaly, as long as I avoid unprotected oral, vaginal or anal sex, there is no STD/HIV risk to be concerned about?

Thank you again.

2) Menstruating really doesn't change the risk. It would have no effect even if you had sex with her:  the amount of HIV in blood is no higher than in genital fluids. Sex during menstruation with an HIV infected woman is no more risky that without the blood contact.

3) Correct, no risk from frontage or mutual masturbation or any other hand genital contact (e.g. fingering) -- even if genital fluids are used for lubrication. Fabric indeed is believed to be a reliable barrier.

4) All correct.

Even though this is a no-risk event, to put this behind me psycholoically I may get some testing done just for final reassurance.

How long do I need to wait for testing for it to be accurate? There is a clinic that offers Urine PCR tests for the standard STD panel; as well as blood testing for the blood-borne diseases. Would 3 days be long enough after the exposure for the Urine PCR test to be conclusive? (I realise it will be negative.) I think the blood tests would need to wait at least 4 weeks?