[Question #10223] lets pretend
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24 months ago
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I have read the forum questions and I have seen where both physicians have stated that chlamydia in the throat is rare, but What is the realistic possibility of me having a pharyngeal chlamydia (for all purposes lets pretend I do) and transferring it to my partner and then him transferring it to me genitally? We have had unprotected sex about once a week for the past month? I was tested two days ago and my genital testing was negative? with my negative genital testing does that mean I did not transfer a pharyngeal infection to him, or is it possible that he has yet to transmit it to me, I have also read where you state that
STDs are not always transmitted?
STDs are not always transmitted?
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
24 months ago
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Before I reply, let me say that these “what if” questions are rarely satisfactory to either clients or to us. There are few, if any absolutes in science just probabilities and if you have concerns either you or your partner ( or both of you) should just get tested. The results are reliable and far more reassuring. Here are the facts:
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Among men who have sex with women less than 1% chlamydia infections in the throat. There are no good estimates regarding the efficiency of transmission of chlamydia through cunnilingus or fellatio, but it is safe to say that when exposed, less, and perhaps far less than 10% of the time infections are transmitted.
EWH
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24 months ago
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I apologize for the what if question, how about I rephrase -
what is the probability of one person in a heterosexual relationship having genital chlamydia and not passing on the infection to the other partner in the month they have been sexually active with once a week sex? I have been tested before having sex and two days ago, both results were negative. my partner does not feel the need to be tested
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
24 months ago
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Several points.
Most people do not have chlamydia but 60% of chlamydia in men is asymptomatic and most infections are not transmitted by persons who do not know they are infected . You don't say much about your partner. I applaud your approach to sexual health and wonder why he does not want to take the simple urine test that would prove that he does not have infection.
If he had infection and you had unprotected genital-genital sex, the chances are at least 60-80% that you would have been infected genitally. OTOH, if your only contact was oral sex on four occasions, chances are less than 1% that he has a throat infection and chances that that infection would have been transmitted to you if present are also low- in the 10% or less as a pure guesstimate. Conversely, if he had penile chlamydial and you performed oral sex on him 4 times, the chances you would have acquired oral infection are less than 5-10%. The estimates regarding oral sex transmission are pure guesstimates- the available data are insufficient.
That said, unless there is a reason to suspect that he is infected, and acknowledging what I do not know about him,
Sorry there is not more precision here. EWH
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