[Question #1024] Chlamydia?

49 months ago

Good morning

 I would appreciate an answer to a slightly complicated situation.

 In February I had two sex (oral sex on the first unprotected oral sex and protected vaginal sex).

After the first, the next day, I took azithromycin 1.5g but had eaten too much  30 minutes before, after   20-25 minutes I threw up .The next day I had unprotected sex with my wife.

 After this second contact, I also took 1 gram of azithromycin- After two days,  I had sex with my wife.

 In May, my wife became pregnant.  urine test at 10 weeks of pregnancy, the result was negative (clean).

 In June, I received a massage without sex (except mutual masturbation) from a parlor. Then I had sex with my wife and she felt discomfort after  two days and feeling hard belly. A first analysis with a dipstick was negative for everything except leukocytes.

This freaked me because I read that this may mean you have chlamydia (I had once chlamydia).

3g Phosphomycin was prescribed and a week of Phosphocin as the hard belly continued. She improved and the urine culture was negative, but now  vaginal discomfort returns.

 In the meanwhile, I tested with a  PCR urine (I gave 80 ml , too much urine, versus the recommendation of  10-20 ml). The test was negative for chlamydia, gonorrhea and mycoplasma.

 

1. Could my wife have chlamydia?

2 . The wrong volume of urine could make my test a false negative?

 

Thank you

H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
49 months ago
Welcome to the forum. Thanks for your question. I'm happy to help. 

There is absolutely no chance you have chlamydia or transmitted it to your wife. Contrary to assumptions (and statements you can find on line), chlamydia is almost never acquired by oral sex (mouth to penis). First, oral chlamydial infection is rare, so it is unlikely your non-marital partners had it. Second, even when present, there have been no proved cases of transmission oral to penis. For example, repeated research has shown chlamydia to virtually never be present in men whose only possible exposure was receiving oral sex. (There have been reported exceptions, but all experts agree these are mostly explained by false information about actual exposures that occurred.)

Third, after vomiting at 20-25 minutes, almost certainly enough azithromycin would have been absorbed to effectively suppress or cure an early chlamydial infection, if you had been infected a day earlier. And you apparently retained the entire dose after the second exposure. Fourth, your negative PCR test was conclusive. Providing 80 ml instead of 10-20 ml makes absolutely no difference. Finally, chlamydia is not a likely cause of the symptoms you describe for your wife.

So all the evidence is that you were not at risk for chlamydia, didn't catch it, cured it with azithromycin if you did, and that your wife is not infected. In other words, the answers to your two questions are no and no.

I hope this has been helpful. Best wishes to you and your growing family--   HHH, MD

---