On the 12th day after exposure, I took a fourth-generation test, and it was negative. Then I did home tests through finger-prick from "INSTI," which is a third-generation test, on weeks 4, 5, 7, 9, and 13, and they were all negative. However, I'm worried about the credibility of these tests as they are not like lab tests. Today, after about 4 months, I went to the lab for another test, and I'm waiting for the results.

I want to know if these symptoms are indicative of an early immune deficiency, especially since they started on day 5. Could my tests have missed detecting the infection? Are finger-prick tests accurate? I will get my test result today and will share it with you. Thank you.

You definitely do not have HIV. Your negative test results prove it for two reasons. First, the INSTI HIV test is usually positive within 4-5 weeks of acquiring the virus and always by 8 weeks, so for sure the 9 and 13 week results are valid. Second, it is not possible to have any HIV symptoms of any kind and not have detectable antibody. It isn't HIV itself that causes symptoms, but the immune response to the virus -- and the immune response includes antibody. In other words, your negative INSTI results prove syphilis isn't the cause of any of the symptoms you have had. And yes, the finger stick tests like INSTI are highly accurate.

It probably doesn't matter, but your comments reflect a misunderstanding of medical terminology. "Mucous membrane" is any moist body lining and not abnormal; the inside of the mouth, nose, rectum, urethra and vagina all are mucous membranes. In any case, HIV is not a likely cause of anything like a "water sac". Your symptoms also are not typical of any STI. Most likely your oral symptoms are from a garden variety upper respiratory virus (which may or may not be from your sex partner three weeks ago).

Stay mellow while you wait for the HIV laboratory test just done. It will be negative. Let me know if anything isn't clear.

HHH, MD

In summary, these are the analyses conducted:

ECLIA Cobas e411 Roche (positive) - First lab

Rapid test (negative)

Architect Abbott (negative)

Elfa (negative)

ECLIA Cobas e411 Roche (positive) - Second lab

Could you explain this situation to me and what is the appropriate course of action he should take now? Should he undergo a PCR test or Western Blot? Thank you.

That completes the two follow-up exchanges included with each question and so ends this thread. I hope the discussion has been helpful. Best wishes and stay safe.