If one prodromes every time before an outbreak (Minor outbreak every 2 months or so since heading into the second year) no medication taken, in your opinion how likely is it that the virus would be transmitted/active if no prodrome has occurred and obviously no physical outbreak? I know this is an opinion, but curious your thoughts since prodrome ALWAYS happens prior to any outbreak. 

to be on the safe side, I would say if you have prodrome that is regularly identified, consider that may well be a contagious time.  Remember that antiviral medicine taken daily reduces transmission by 48% over not taking medicine.---

When there is not an active prodrome or outbreak. Would you say one is much less contagious in this situation given there has never been an outbreak without prodrome first? 

We know that people shed virus when they have no symptoms whatsoever, in quantities similar to when there is an outbreak present (or prodrome).  This isn't easy to hear but it is reality.---