[Question #10425] risk of HSV-1 from saliva to genital contact?

Avatar photo
23 months ago

I am a 27 y/o Male. I had two episodes of protected sexual intercourse on the same night, saliva of the female was used as a lubricant (condom worn throughout). Hand to genital exposure also occurred, without a condom, but no/limited saliva was used. No oral sex occurred at any point. The female has had cold sores in her life and therefore HSV-1 +ve, but no sores present at the time of sexual activity. I am HSV-1 -ve (blood tested last year).

I have read that for HSV-2, the per act transmission rate is around 1 in 1,000. Is there any data on whether these odds are similar for HSV-1 transmission via oral sex ? I did not have oral sex but I know saliva could contain the virus. I imagine the risks of HSV-1 transmission to be lower in my exposure situation, with saliva being used as a lubricant, and condom use during intercourse. Is this the case?

Avatar photo
Terri Warren, RN, Nurse Practitioner
23 months ago
We don't have any data on the per act risk of transmission of HSV 1, I"m afraid.  Condoms reduce transmission of HSV 2 from females to males by 65% and condoms should also offer good protection against HSV 1 during oral sex.  Hard to know exactly how the saliva fits into the picture, it's not a great way to transmit HSV1 but not zero either probably.

Terri
---
Avatar photo
23 months ago
Thank you for your reply. Unfortunately it turns out the partner did have an oral lesion last week on the inner border of the lip to mouth, but forgot to tell me .. 
My final question is, if I don’t develop symptoms over the next 2 weeks, what degree of certainty does this give ? Do all people develop an initial episode following infection ? Bit confused as resources say a lot of people don’t even know they have HSV, so logically does this mean many people don’t develop initial symptoms ?