Day 20 post exposure, I had sex with my wife, and 10 days later she woke up with Strep like sickness, 1 tonsil with white stuff, sore throat on one side, and high fever.  Ear pain, body ache.  Fever was gone in about 48 hours, and she went to work with sore throat day 3-4.   She was taking amoxicillin.

I am terrified i have infected my wife with HIV.

Since i took PEP for 5.5 days, when can i conclusively Rule out HIV 1 & 2.?  Should i feel confident in the girls negative test at 34 days post  I dont know when her last exposure was before me, she says 6 months.  

Your Senegal partner's test conclusively proves she did not have HIV (of either type) when you were with her. You cannot react to every twitch, tingle or unexplained illness -- in yourself or your wife -- with the assumption it relates to your sexual indiscretions. And HIV does not cause or predispose to the sorts of symptoms your wife has -- and we're at the height of the cold season anyway! Also ARS fever and other symptoms never clear up in under 10 days, and do not respond to antibiotics. As for gonorrhea and chlamydia, you could not have had them when you resumed sex with your wife, and they also do not cause the symptoms you report for her. Neither you nor your wife needs any further testing for HIV or any other STI.

On top of all that, you have repeatedly expressed your awareness that repeated anxiety driven questions are subject to deletion without reply. Any more like this will in fact be managed in that fashion, without even this sort of abbreviated reply. Rather than relying on this forum, given your obvious anxieties and your apparent inability to refrain from exactly the behaviors that set them off, you should seriously consider professional counseling. I suggest it from compassion, not criticism.

HHH, MD