Here is my main question. We did not have sex for about 5 or  6months from the incident described above. I was scared and we were going through a tough patch. I have read that Gonnorhea clears on its own in weeks in males (read a post by HHH that said 90% by 8 weeks) 

If for some reason I did get Gonnorhea (I don’t remember any overt symptoms, would I not have it 5-6 months later when having sex with my wife?

There was no chance you caught gonorrhea from the event described, and if somehow that had happened, the cephalexin would have further reduced the chance of infection. In addition, since almost all urethral gonorrhea causes obvious symptoms -- pus dripping from the penis, painful urination -- absence of such symptoms was further evidence you were not infected. Finally, it is true that the immune system clears urethral gonorrhea within several weeks, so even if somehow you acquired gonorrhea last April, you can be sure it is gone by now.

I'm sorry to hear you avoided sex with your wife so long:  the "rough patch" presumably was the main reason; fear of gonorrhea was not a valid reason to avoid sex with her. I hope things are smoothing out in your relationship:  please do not let your concerns about gonorrhea (or any other STD) interfere with resuming a healthy and rewarding sexual relationship.

I hope these comments are helpful. Happy new year!

HHH, MD

Thanks so much for your reply. The rough patch unfortunately did in part have to do with my anxiety. I had gotten over it until finding out that my partner is being screened for Gonorrhea and CT as part of her check up. I have a couple of follow up questions to maybe ease my mind further.

1) I took the Cefalexin 2X a day 500 mg for 5 or 6 days starting the day after the encounter. Would that have theoretically been enough to abort an infection if there was one?

2) The plastic covering looked like the plastic from one of those gloves you would see in food service but not latex. Would that barrier of been sufficient. I have read other threads saying that plastic wrap works as a barrier in oral

3)  Lets say theoretically i did get Gonnorhea from the encounter and failed the treatment. Would I have had the overt symptoms or would the treatment dampened the symptoms to the point I might not of noticed.

4) Most important (because I think it is the thing that will give me most peace of mind.) If I did get infected and failed the Cefalexin, Would my body of cleared the infection 5 months after the infection, when I resumed sex with my wife, making it impossible to give it to her?

5) I keep telling myself if she were to test positive for Gonorrhea based on the facts from this only extramarital encounter that she would of gotten it somewhere else based on Scientific probability (although I am sure she has been faithful). Would you agree with that?

1. Cephalexin is not the main reason to be confident you didn't have gonorrhea. It has not been studied for its effectiveness against gonorrhea, certainly not at this dose. But it probably would have aborted a developing infection if in fact you were exposed.

2. Any latex, polyethylene, or similar barrier that looks intact to the naked eye provides 100% protection.

3. No. Partial or ineffective treatment of gonorrhea does not lessen symptoms except by cure. There is no possibility the cephalexin converted this to an asymptomatic infection.

4. This repeats information you already knew and which I repeated above. Correct on all counts.

5. If you are your wife's only sex partner in recent years, then obviously you would have to have been the source of her infection should she test positive. But that won't happen.

This is all very simple, straightforward business. Don't overthink it! There is nothing else that will come to mind that has any chance of changing my judgement and advice.

I I just want to clarify a couple of things from your response.

3. I understand now that the antibiotics did not cure it would not change the fact that I would have had symptoms (I recently read that 99% of men have overt symptoms, I’m assuming this is correct.) Im also on a biologic medication. I’m assuming that would not change the likelyhood of symptoms. If iinfected. Correct if I’m wrong.

5. I should rephrase this theoretical question. If somehow she should test positive, I think it would be fair to ask the question if she had other partners because there seems that there would be a much larger probability of getting it from someone else then getting it from me considering this was my only other sexual contact  then with her. iis that correct?.

5. Of course it's correct. Why even ask this until and unless she tests positive??? That won't happen.

"I should also ask..." Immunosuppressive drugs make no difference in clearance of gonorrhea or any other bacterial infection.

Thanks for confirmting my statement that nothing you will think of has any chance of changing my evaluation and advice!

That concludes this thread. I hope the discussion has been helpful. Happy new year!