I had a brief encounter with an Asian masseuse that resulted in only oral sex where she gave me a blowjob. 

It was with a condom and when she completed I confirmed that my semen wasn’t leaking out the tip which I assume means it was not compromised.

The reason I’m here is because I have reason to believe the condom was not new and with the foot traffic in this place, I’m concerned that it could have been used on another gentleman before me and had his sperm/secretions in it. 

I’ve seen other questions asking about genital secretions being applied on to genitals without penetrating is not a risk for transmitting HIV- does this fall under that same umbrella of being no risk if the sperm is in a condom that is being used on me?

My assumptions after reading other tickets is that exposure to the air and it being rubbed on me from an inanimate object, I.e, a recently used condom would inactivate any virus if there was.

Am I wrong anywhere? Should I be worried?

You describe a zero risk encounter for any and all STDs. Even without condoms, oral sex can be considered safe sex because of the low risk of any infection. That a condom might have been used with another customer seems exceedingly unlikely. Why? So the massage operation could save a dollar (or less) when they're probably charging well over $100 for their services???

Sorry to disappoint you, but if a condom had been recently used and contained semen from an HIV infected gentleman, I would assume HIV would be transmissible. But what are the odds a previous user had HIV? Maybe one in thousands, tops? The whole notion is so ludicrous that I really have no inclination to comment further.

To your closing question:  No, you are not wrong about the the conclusion (no risk). However, you are mistaken about the reasons. 

I hope these comments are helpful, even if they don't accord with your expectations and hopes. Let me know if anything isn't clear.

HHH, MD

That makes perfect sense and I’ll admit I was quite paranoid after the encounter.

I just want to clarify one thing then I’ll be on my way- I worded my last question in a way that one would assume there was sperm/secretions in the condom that was then used on me.

I think what I wanted to express during my paranoid state was if they used it on another gentlemen then made an attempt to clean it and  reuse. So in effect, there’s no visible ejaculate on it but it is also not new.

I know how ridiculous this sounds. I read the odds you presented and I agree this is exceedingly unlikely with how cheap condoms are and  frankly sound ludicrous but it’s been bothering me nonstop.

However you look at it, this was a no risk event.