My wife and I are non-monogamous.  We are both straight. Our last STD screening was a year ago and all was fine.  I had 12 partners over the past year, 7  were unprotected but each assured me they were ok. She had 2 partners, one protected one unprotected. Neither of us have had symptoms of anything. Most of these encounters were one-time occurrences. On to my questions: 1) We had physicals and the urinalysis came back as "no bacteria detected - clear". I realize this is not a substitute for an STD screening, but is this a good indication neither of us have anything bacterial going on? 2) She takes low dose doxycycline daily for an issue with her eyes. Will that skew testing results on her end? 3) Do you recommend hsv testing via IGG as part of our yearly STD screening? 4) Given our lifestyle is it likely we have Chlamydia at any given time since it is so prevalent and symptoms are rarely present?

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Thanks Dr. Hook. Generally speaking, how much more likely is it for a woman to contract an STI from a man than vice versa from unprotected sex? In other words, is she at greater risk from new partners than I am with unprotected sex (I am heterosexual, she is bisexual)? Also, is there less risk if she is with another woman than with another man? How much do condoms offer her protection vs. me? Lastly, assuming we have no symptoms, how often do you recommend we routinely test? Thanks in advance 

After a single sexual encounter with an infected partner women are more likely to acquire common STIs like gonorrhea or chlamydia than men.  The data on this are best for gonorrhea but are assumed to be relevant to other STIs.  Women having any for of sex with an infected female partner are less likely to become infected than women having genital contact with an infected male.  ---