[Question #11174] HIV

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16 months ago
I am sorry for posting a new question.

I now understand that if someone fingers my rectum without gloves and the person's fingers are contaminated with active, HIV-infected genital fluids and blood, my risk of contracting HIV is zero.

However, I am not sure if this holds true if someone fingers my rectum with gloves that are contaminated with active, HIV-infected genital fluids and blood. I am concerned that the material of the gloves might increase the risk of HIV transmission.

Can you confirm whether, in the scenario where someone fingers my rectum with gloves contaminated with active, HIV-infected genital fluids and blood, my risk of contracting HIV is zero?

Thank you very much for your help.
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H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
16 months ago
I don't understand why you're back or why you need to ask this question.

I wrote this in your previous thread:  "The gloves have nothing to do with it. Fingering without gloves is no risk for HIV. Nobody ever gets HIV from fingering, even if fingers have HIV infected fluids on them. Not enough virus can be transmitted." The material gloves are constructed from -- latex, polyethylene, etc, -- do not increase the risk. Your HIV risk was zero.

HHH, MD
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16 months ago
Thank you for your patience and expertise. I apologize if my continued questions are bothersome, but I want to ensure I fully understand your advice.

I have some additional questions:

1. I have been experiencing hemorrhoids. If my hemorrhoids were bleeding during the activity when I received fingering of my rectum with gloves potentially contaminated with active HIV-infected genital fluids and blood, would this alter your assessment of the HIV risk?

2. In general, is the risk of HIV transmission considered zero for a person whose rectum is fingered (both with and without gloves) if there is potential contamination with active HIV-infected genital fluids and blood, while the person has actively bleeding hemorrhoids?

Thank you again for your help.
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H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
16 months ago
Nobody can say the risk is truly zero, but since there has never been a case of HIV believed to have been transmitted by such contact, you can consider it to be zero. With those clarifications, the answer is yes for both questions.---
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16 months ago
Thank you very much.

When you say that “the answer is yes for both questions,” what do you mean for question 1? Are you saying that your assessment is unchanged and my HIV risk is zero?
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H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
16 months ago
The answer to both questions 1 and 2 is yes:  I am saying they are zero risk for all practical purposes.

That concludes this thread. Please note that repeated questions on the same topic or exposure are not permitted. This being your second about this exposure and your inflated worries, it will have to be your last; future questions on these topics may receive no reply and the posting fee will not be refunded. This policy is based on compassion, not criticism, and is intended to reduce temptations to keep paying for questions with obvious answers. In addition, experience shows that continued answers tend to prolong users' anxieties rather than reducing them. Finally, such questions have little educational value for other users, one of the forum's main purposes. Thanks for your understanding. 

I hope the two discussions have been helpful. Best wishes and stay safe.

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