I am a man and had vaginal sex (one penetration) with a woman of unknown hiv status in Western Europe. 10 hours later I took PEP during 30 days. Not sure how effective PEP is, nobody say the same. Also 30 days after that exposure the woman had a 4th generation laboratory combo test which was negative and sent me the report. As it is not 6 weeks, I understand I am still at risk in the case she contracted hiv in the 2 weeks before my exposure with her? Or her test at 4 weeks is good enough? Also how many days after a hiv exposure a person is contagious ? 16 days after finishing PEP, I got a light sore throat (lasted 2 or 3 days) and diarrhea (lasted 1 day). I had very light wet nose with the sore throat. I did not have other symptom (no fever) . I worry this could be ars symptoms? 

It was unprotected vaginal insertive 

Welcome to our Forum and thanks for your questions.  I’ll be glad to comment.  The encounter you describe was low risk.  Few women in Western Europe have HIV and even in the unlikely case that your partner had untreated HIV, the risk of acquiring HIV is less than 1 in 1000 and the PEP you took further reduced your risk for infection another more than 90%.  Thus without any test results there was a more than 99.99% chance that you did not get HIV.  Your partner’s test results prove that she could not have infected you.  Her negative tests 30 days after the encounter are incompatible with transmission of HIV to you.---

In fact she tested 28 days (not 30) after the encounter with me. Does this changes your answer? Her negative tests 28 days after the encounter with me are still enough days to prove that she could not have infected me? Thanks 

There are no meaningful differences between results at 28 versus 30 days. Her negative test 28 days following your encounter absolutely proves that it would not be possible for her to have infected you during your encounter. Please don’t worry. EWH.---

Thank you 

I'm pleased I could help. This thread will be closed now.  EWH---