I have a couple questions after a I think 0 risk exposure yesterday, but truth is I am freaking out, mostly cause I have a female wife and encounter was with another male.

Encounter was just: about 5-10 min masturbation (each their own, no mutual). Partner did touch más testicles and shaft with clean hand for a little while, but not close urethra. Later on, I do precum a lot, so partner "licked" (an onverstatement, as he just touched tip of penis to taste my precum, it was a less than a second contact and it was either only tip of tounge and lips, it may have touched my meatus.

Finally, I also frotted unprotected for about 20s the area around higher part of buttocks/waist/lower back. Definitely did not come close anus or really in between the cheeks.

Did not notice any obvious sore, but were not really looking for them. Partner claims all neg as per April (has had 1 oral after that), he also reported no lesions or sores after I asked today.

1 hour later I took 200mg doxy Hiclate, with just enough milk to swallow (I then learnt milk is bad for doxy absorption) which was spoiled, I vomited within 30m and took another 100mg with milk as well.

I know risk for G is low as contact was less than a second, and only lips and tip of tongue. I am also HPV vaccinated (2 doses ), so this only leaves syphilis. If I want 0 risk, is doxy pep enough or should I do 14d instead? What about G? When can I test for G, will doxy delay test window? 

Is it okay to have unprotected sex with my wife, after getting a G negative? Waiting 6 weeks for syphilis would be unviable, hence me asking for 0 risk.

Doxy pep papers state a 80% risk reduction, but you have sometime mentioned 100% both for pep and regular treatment. But if doxy were 100% even in regular, why is it that all sources strongly recommend Penicillin and only really advise doxy if allergic?

Masturbation is a no risk activity.  Similarly, there is no risk from having your testicles touched or your precum licked are entirely no risk events.  Frottage is an entirely no risk event as well.  Your risk of syphilis is theoretical and having taken doxycycline virtually eliminates any risk for infection when your risk is purely theoretical

It takes less medication (doxycycline) to prevent syphilis is a recently exposed person than to cure established infection.  That is the reason that less medication is recommended for prevention than for cure is infection.

I hope this information is helpful.  You have nothing to worry about.  EWH

Thanks for your response, could you reply to the rest of my questions?

Ie. Can you comment on why doxypep studies state 80% efficacy and advise in this forum is it would 100% abbort infection? If there is indeed 80% then maybe going full 2 weeks course is better, as I want to keep on unprotected sex with wife?

Can you comment on whether vomiting or taking milk would render 200mg + 100 imneficient?

When can I test for gonorrhea, and does doxy affect that widow?

Doxy will not impact the reliability of testing. If you are infected, the test will be positive.  Testing however is a waste of time given the NO RISK nature of your exposure.

Penicillin is easier to administer- one shot and that's it's it.  In contrast you need to remember to take doxy for 14 days.  Many people have trouble doing this

You have one follow-up remaining

EWH

I read the answer for the question on doxy pep the first time, as I did the second. Yet I think there is a misunderstanding on the question I am asking: The question is not "why is 200mg enough to prevent instead of 2 weeks". I clearly understand the reason is less medicine is needed to prevent than to cure. But that is not my question, my question is, "Why the studies on doxy pep mention that 80% infections are prevented for syphilis with 200mg pep vs the advise I have read here in the forum is that this regimen of 200mg is 100% effective, what is the main reason for difference in avise?"

I think all of my other concerns are clear and I understand no risk for gonorrhea, theorical risk for syphilis, but even then, doxy is effective. No need to test for anything. And can continue unprotected sex. 

Is all of that accurate?

Thanks for the work and service you provide .

In clinical studies, participant behavior cannot be assured.  Response rates are NEVER 100% and this is more often than not due to participants mis-reporting their risks and exposures.  

You are not at risk for syphilis.  If you do not like that assessment, perhaps you can find someone who can tell you that you're at risk and perhaps would even prescribe additional unneeded medication

As I said before, nothing you describe suggests any need for testing.  If you wish to test, do so, the tests will be negative.

End of thread.  EWH