So based on the early question and comments.

1. Should my wife have a positive pap for HPV or suspicious cells.  Would my oral sex event be the cause?  

2. I have read that positive paps are not indicative of infedility, does this also apply to my scenario where we have been married for 30 yrs?  Do monogamous couples get HPV?

3.  Can positive paps show up in such couples years later?

The ASHA site  states on HPV that it is not a sign of infedility. 

Sorry i am scared but trying to be a better person 

So did I

Address your guilt, not improbably outcomes of your past behaviors.  EWH

To question 1.  If positive pap where would it come from if not from the oral sex

To question 2. Sorry I was not speaking of infertility but infedility.  Would a positive pap be indicative of infedility in my scenario?

To question 3. Thanks 

2.  This too was answered previously.  HPV infection is not necessarily an indicator of infidelity.  Trying to anticipate an answer to this question is ismplynot possibly, particualry becaue I am confident that it is not going to happen

You are clearly consumed by guilt from what you now perceive to be missteps.  This is apparently leading you to concoct improbable scenarios about outcomes that you already heard are most unlikely to occur.  Your wife has had check-ups which were normal since your receipt of virtually no risk oral sex.  It is scientifically improbable that now. years after you received condom protected oral sex, she is suddenly going to be HPV positive.  In all sincerity, I urge you to seek counseling as to what seems to have suddenly caused your guilt to blossom.  If it is because your guilt is fueled by the misinformation found on the internet, I urge you to try to get over it.  If you cannot, you need counseling which should be available to you and confidential.  EWH