My new girlfriend admitted to having 2 genital herpes outbreaks, the last one being exactly 1 year ago. She claimed it was caused by HSV1. I asked her to get tested and her results came back as Negative for HSV2, and positive for HSV1. It was a IGg test, unknown if Western Blot. Is it more likely that she had a false negative for HSV2 due to a 1 of being dormant OR is it more likely that she has HSV1 that manifests in gentian herpes? Is there anything else we can do to be assured it is or is not gentian herpes HSV2? I do not know her well enough to put my self at risk for HSV2 even with condoms. 

I am terribly sorry that I missed your post!---

She did not get a swap on her outbreak to confirm HSV1 during the outbreak. Just an initial blood test that showed negative as expected due to proximity to outbreak. All we know now is 1 yr later a IgG blood test shows positive for HSV1 and negative for HSV2. Does that change the calculus? My primarily care provider says that genital HSV1 outbreaks are less common than false negative blood tests, hence me asking a specialist. 

Well, given that she didn't have a swab test done, I'm not clear that she has genital HSV 1  - I guess it could be oral - though she knows how severe the presentation was and how likely it was to be HSV at all.  I believe that she has HSV 1 only, and she demonstrated what we call seroconversion - going from negative to positive.  If you have any history of cold sores are test positive for HSV 1 via antibody test, then you are not a risk of acquiring HSV 1 again from her.---