When my parnter was pregnant with my 2 child i was very stupid and made some bad decisions and visited sex workers. Most exposures where condom protected however i did give unprotected oral to some and received unprotected oral sex , 3 years later now i am worried my child could have been born with Congenital Syphillis. I am in a state where we have the highest rates of congenital syphillis. My partner did get tested during her pregnacy however i am worried those tests could have been taken during a window period where it was no detected in her blood yet or infected her after she had the blood tests done. My child seems healthy but i read online that babys can look healthy and not have problems until they are adults. I have taken a TPPA test one year after the birth of the baby and my results where negative that made me feel better as i have read that they always stay poitive forever.However i then have read online that in some cases the TPPA and seroreverse to negative in some patients. How often do you guys see this happen? I dont remember ever taking antibiotics during that time. But i am worried my Immune system could have cleared the infection and made my TPPA go negative. 

Also my partner was tested for STIs 8 months after birth of the baby and her RPR was negative what are the odds she had Syphillis at birth and her immune system cleared the infection and made the RPR negative 8 months later ? 

You're seriously overthinking this. There is no possibility you, your wife, or your child has syphilis. You were at little or no risk; and even in the areas of the country with the highest congenital syphilis rates, under one pregnancy in 10,000 is involved. It is not possible your partner had syphilis and then had a negative test result during pregnancy; and hence impossible she infected your child; and your TPPA also proved you have never in your life had syphilis. It is wrong that TPPA converts to negative; don't believe everything you read online. Stop worrying about this.

HHH, MD

Here is a link of a article that states TPPA can seroreverse to negative https://academic.oup.com/cid/article/56/3/463/426795#

The CDC also states 15-20% of people treated with primary syphillis will test negative on there TPPA within 2-3 years. https://www.cdc.gov/std/treatment-guidelines/syphilis.htm

I know you said the TPPA wont turn negative but if thats the case why do these reports say it is possible? 

Let it go. There is nothing more you can think of that has any possibility of changing this forum's assessment of your situation or our advice about it.

Also you state the RPR would stay positive unless treated, But i have read some of your other threads that state the immune system can handle the infection after some time which causes the RPR to turn negative without treatment. But your now saying that the RPR wont turn negative unless treated for it ? I dont want to seem like i am doubting you however i am seeing you say two different things compared to other threads. 

If my baby had syphillis would we know it by now ? Would the pediatrician notice it ? She is 3yrs old looks seems healthy but i do remember when she was a few weeks old she did develop rash all over her body that the doctor claimed it was eczema and she has got a regualr blood panel done earlier this year however obviously those dont test for syphillis. Im just scared she can have late congenital syphillis by now. She has taken amoxicillin when she was smaller for ear infections however those where only 7 days of liquid oral medication , She also had two shots of rocephin at one point when her ear infections didnt go away with the amoxicillin. Could that have cured her in case she did have syphillis ? 

RPR can become negative without treatment, but not sooner than a few years after infection; and usually remains positive for life. The report about TPPA becoming negative is only after treatment; and as the of authors of the report state themselves, their results conflict with several earlier studies. It remains uncertain which observation is most reliable -- but in any case, it only applies to treated patients.

Either ceftriaxone (Rocephin) or amoxicillin would have cured syphilis in your child if she had been infected -- but that doesn't matter, since it is proved she could not possibly have it.

That concludes this thread. Please note the forum does not permit repeated questions on the same topic or exposure. This being your third about your inflated and frankly irrational fears about syphilis and its consequences, and since you have been resistant to the reasoned, science-based evaluations and advice you have had repeatedly, it must be your last. Future questions on these topics will receive no reply and the posting fee will not be refunded. This policy is based on compassion, not criticism, and is intended to reduce temptations to keep paying for questions with obvious answers. In addition, experience shows that continued answers tend to prolong users' anxieties rather than reducing them. Finally, such questions have little educational value for other users, one of the forum's main purposes. Thanks for your understanding.