I appreciate your review and input 

I am 52 an my wife who is 40  is having sever UTI symptoms. 

Details 

8-2 unprotected sex with woman I met and restaurant bar with friends. She is married, 39 year old mother of 2 and in unhappy marriage. She is also a nurse in Oregon. We had unprotected sex 2 times during night about 10 min each.

 Worried so I Came hope and took 200mg of doxy 12 hours after last session. And again 24 hours after that

I have shown no symptoms. I am literally unable to to sleep, eat and hard to breath I'm so worried. 

I went and did testing yesterday and was treat with cetriaxone and 7 days doxy. 

Could this be still that I gave to my wife???????

I see no reason to be at all concerned about STI in either you or your wife. First, you describe an extremely low risk non marital sexual event. A partner like your is very unlikely to have an active STI. Second, you took doxycycline (unnecessarily and in double the dose needed) which would have prevented chlamydia and probably gonorrhea. Third, You report no symptoms to suggest you have a urethral STI, further reducing the already near zero risk you had anything to transmit to your wife. Finally, UTIs are not STIs, and although their symptoms can overlap with common STIs, this is not very likely; and your wife's symptoms are more consistent with UTI than with any STI. Finally, although you don't describe how your wife's UTI problem was diagnosed, for the most part UTI diagnosis is straightforward.

That said, you describe some peculiarities in your wife's treatment. Ceftriaxone is not typical UTI treatment, although cephalexin (Keflex) is. Was her UTI professionally diagnosed? There's also confusion about her treatment for "yeast infection" with metronidazole (Flagyl), which is for trichomonas or bacterial vaginosis and has no effect on yeast infections? Has she been tested for STIs? 

It was a mistake for you to be treated with ceftriaxone and more doxycycline in this situation, especially without first testing you for gonorrhea and chlamydia.. The main effect is to make it harder to accurately diagnose either you or your wife. Your treatment and hers has been highly atypical, either done on your own (?) or by doctor(s) not very experienced in STIs and maybe not in UTI.

Despite those uncertainties, all things considered it is very unlikely you acquired any STI from your non marital sexual event, or that your wife has any STI. But perhaps I'll have more thoughts about it if you fill in some of the missing details! In the meantime, I hope these comments are helpful.

HHH, MD

She is in the health field and self diagnosed. Self medicated 

I may be off on the flag could have been different name. I think she used the cetriaxone because her symptoms were getting worse and that would be much stronger for UTI? 

To clarify I did get tested prior to treatment and am waiting on results 

She says she feels like crap tired hot, fever. Should I worry about hiv??

I am 100 % sure she is only at risk because of me. I worried that the keflex has not made a dent in her symptoms in 5 days of taking it.  She is unable to sleep and in constant discomfort.  What else could it be?  Maybe gonorrhea wasn't knocked out by the doxy?  And this these symptoms?

Should I be looking to test for anything else???

Thank you

Thanks 

Anybody with a significant infection can "feel like crap". Of course that's no different for UTI, STIs, or many other infections.

I assumed your other sexual contact was unprotected. That doesn't change my assessment or advice. You may be "100% sure" your wife's illness is from you, but I am nearly equally convinced it is not. The possibility that you have gonorrhea or chlamydia a) from such a partner, b) without symptoms, and c) also failed two 200 mg doses of doxycycline? Exceedingly unlikely. (To be clear, some gonorrhea is resistant to doxycycline. However, over half would respond to it.)

One other aspect you might consider is whether your wife suspects an STI problem herself. Given her health care expertise, why else would she use ceftriaxone, whose main usage is for gonorrhea? Is she perhaps at risk of STI independent of your extramarital adventures? Did she in fact suspect gonorrhea or other STI (like chlamydia) herself, perhaps as pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) -- the most common gonorrhea complication in women? And also treating herself with metronidazole (Flagyl), which also is a commonly used treatment of PID? When one member of a couple finds need for outside sexual expression, often the other has as well.

At this point my advice is that your wife stop trying to manage her own infection, regardless of her health care expertise, especially since her symptoms apparently aren't improving on her self-treatments. She needs proper medical care. And perhaps you and she need a frank and honest discussion together.