This event was zero risk for HIV and all STDs. If I understand, there may have been slight saliva contact with your penis, but saliva rarely if ever transmits HIV or STDs; in fact, saliva is toxic to STD bacteria and viruses. Otherwise, "very close" approxmation of your penis to a partner's mouth doesn't permit transmission, and even if her lips or tongue had contacted you, with such brief contact there would have been no risk. Even oral sex to completion (several minutes) is very low risk for all STDs and zero risk for some. Having a cold or sinus infection doesn't mean anything either:  no STD causes such symptoms; and yes, amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmenting) would have prevented syphilis from taking hold. Your wife's pregancy also makes no difference either in the risk you were infected, that she could have been infected, or the chance of a problem with the pregnancy. I also have no concern about your penile shaft feeing "sensitive". Almost certainly that's just your anxiety raising your awareness of a trivial sensation that otherwise would not be bothersome and perhaps not even noticed. As for a "small white bump" and secondary syphilis:  impossible on several grounds. Among others, secondary syphilis doesn't start sooner than 6-8 weeks (and usually 2-4 months) after infection. Other causes of "white bumps" in the mouth must outnumber syphilis by a million to one. Finally, you have over-interpreted or misunderstood whatever you found online about false positive tests in pregnancy. It's not a significant problem for HIV or any STI.

Those comments pretty well cover your numbered questions, but to assure no misunderstanding:

1. Zero risk for any and all STDs. None are transmitted by hand-genital contact, even when genital fluids are used for lubrication. Such fluids cannot carry enough STD bacteria or viruses for infection to occur.

2,3. Since you weren't at risk, the antibiotic can make no difference. If you had been exposed, it would have prevented syphilis and probably gonorrhea and chlamydia. It would not have allowed infection; it would not make tests falsely negative.

4. I would advise against testing, that you should not be at all worried, and that you should continue unprotected sex with your wife without concern.

I hope these comments are helpful. Let me know if anything isn't clear.

HHH, MD

For question 2, i know that my risk was 0 but still for my own anxiety: The augmentin dosage/regimen appeared low for syphilis so i wantex to check on that. In the event if exposure, would that clear it or stop it at around 21+ days exposure? Also since that would have been taken, i still would like to know if that would prevent the body from producing antibodies in relation to an eia test taken 3 weeks later from augmentin(7 or 8 weeks after exposure)

You also mentuoned that the sore would not develop before 6-8 weeks exposure. I just wanted to point out this would be week 9-10 and wanted to get clarification on that. Would a mouth lesion develop in secondary if i had no mouth exposure as well? 

Again thank you, i understand this is my anxiety but im really just trying to make absolutely sure that my results are reliable regardless of risk, and that seperately my risk was zero in this event. I appreciate your reassurance

That said, I misunderstood the timing. It seemed that all this occurred within a few days. But the body cannot produce antibodies if infection does not occur.

I said nothing about timing of an initial syphilis sore (chancre). But yes, 6-8 weeks is much too late.

I can confirn it is "absolutely sure" your negative results are reliable and that "separately [your] risk was zero in this event."

You came here for our professional evaluation and advice. You have it -- accept it or not, I don't care, but this isn't a debate!