[Question #12155] Hiv Possibility
9 months ago
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I’m 24 straight male (sexually active since age 19) and never been tested for stds until October 23rd (had a swollen testicle and wanted to test). I tested positive for Chlamydia on the test. My last sexual encounter was September 18th (35 days prior to the std test). I had unprotected oral and vaginal sex during a one night stand. I texted the girl telling her I was positive and asked if she had been tested and she said she was negative for all stds and claims she tested on 9/11 and 10/8.
1.) Is it possible I got chlamidia from someone else (not her) and just started showing symptoms coincidentally few days ago? My prior last sexual encounter before her was with a girl on July 29th (protected sex but had unprotected oral sex). I took a 4th gen HIV blood test on 9/20 and it came back negative and took another 4th gen hiv blood test on 10/23 (35 days after most recent exposure) and was negative. 2) What are chances I have hiv from this recent encounter and do u think the girl was lying about her being clean? Idk how I could have gotten chlamyida if it was not from her. Please advise. Thanks so much. I’m super worried I have hiv.
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H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
9 months ago
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Welcome to the forum and thanks for your question. I'm glad to help.
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First answering the implied priority of the title you chose, "HIV possibility": Almost zero risk. I'll bet not 10 people in the US catch HIV each year from such an exposure, and your negative AgAb (4th generation) blood test results are nearly conclusive. For final reassurance you could have another such test at the 6 week mark. There is almost no chance your partner is lying about her HIV status. The chlamydia issue is the far more important one.
She also probably is being truthful about her chlamydia result. However, she definitely needs treatment, as do you. (Presumably you've been treated, right? With doxycycline for 7 days, I hope.)
It's fairly common for chlamydia to show up in only one person in a couple when almost certainly both are infected. There are several possibilities. Perhaps you were infected by some previous partner, maybe months previously. (It would help to know if you had symptoms like penile discharge before you were diagnosed.) In that case, maybe she was infected but the test wasn't yet positive. Or the test missed her infection; the tests aren't perfect. Or she took an antibiotic active against chlamydia, for some other reason. In any case, she either was the source of your infection or you had it first and exposed her. Either way, she must be treated with doxycycline, and preferably should be tested again before treatment.
Retuning to HIV, there is under one chance in millions that either you or your partner have it. But do go ahead with another AgAb test ("4th generation") next week, i.e. 6+ weeks after the Sept. 18 exposure date.
I hope these comments are helpful. Let me know if anything isn't clear.
HHH, MD
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9 months ago
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Thank you for your response. I am taking doxycycline and started when I tested positive for Chlamydia on 10/23. Again, my last sexual encounter was a one night stand on 9/17 and met her on a dating app. She told me she was in an open relationship so not sure how many people she’s been with. I haven’t shown any symptoms ever at all except starting around 10/19 when I had one swollen/itchy testicle (never had symptoms prior to this no penile discharge). I reached out to her after I tested positive asking again when she was last tested for everything and She texted me saying she was tested for all stds on 9/11 ( almost a week before we had sex) and on 10/8 (3 weeks after we had sex) and was negative for everything. She is being tested again Monday after I told her I was positive for Chlamydia. I know Chlamydia is treatable but more concerned about hiv and if I should trust her because I don’t see how I could have got it from her if she truly tested negative for all stds on 9/11 (one week prior to us having sex) and on 10/8. I’m a nervous wreck about having hiv and will take another 4th gen blood test in a few days (at 6weeks). The walk in clinic that treated me for chlamyida said I needed to wait 3 and 6months for 4th gen hiv test for it to be conclusive. I don’t see how I can go that long with how anxious I am and is it actually possible to have gotten chlamydia from a prior sexual encounter (roughly 3 months ago was the last one before 9/17) and not her (the girl on 9/17)?
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H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
9 months ago
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I've explained the possibilities why your and your partner's chlamydia test results were different. With the additional information about your previous partner, probably you have had chlamydia since the sexual exposure 3 months ago. Or maybe even longer than that; chlamydia can last a year or more without symptoms. In any case, please tell your recent partner how important it is that she be treated despite her negative test results; she was either the source of your chlamydia or exposed to it. Also consider discussing this with the earlier partner.
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I can't say more than I already have about HIV. Re-read my comments above and have another text next week. Maybe it will also help you to know that in the 21 years of this and our preceding forum, with thousands of questions from people worried being exposed to HIV, none has yet turned out to be infected. You will not be the first. If and when it finally happens, undoubtedly it will be from a genuinely high risk exposure (think unprotected anal sex between men with hundreds of partners) and without false negative test results prior to the positive test. Suck it up and and believe it.
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9 months ago
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Hi Dr. I am freaking out. I went to quest diagnostics this morning to get another hiv test and purchased test called: HIV-1/2 ANTIGEN AND ANTIBODIES, FOURTH GENERATION, WITH REFLEX and got test done at 8:30am central time. At 10am when I go to the results screen it says sample received at lab but the test name changed to:
- HIV 1 \T\ 2 TEST WITH CONFIRMATION .
- Does this mean that something came back potentially positive on the initial blood test??? I’m not sure why test name would change to that.
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H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
9 months ago
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That statement does not mean any such thing. It is simply different wording of the test that is being done. It just means that if the initial screening test for HIV1 and HIV2 is positive, a confirmatory test will be done automatically. This is entirely normal and absolutely nothing to be concerned about.---
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9 months ago
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I understand I have a limited replies and am hoping you could answer the below question and me stay in touch until I get the result as I’m very confused. More than happy to buy another question if need be. My question is below past the pictures to clarify my last point.
I attached picture of wording on quest diagnostics of my test I took on 10/28 that is in status in progress. It initially said hiv 1/2 antigen/antibody, fourth gen w/rflx” on the result screen but 2 hours after me giving my blood sample it changed to the wording below: 
Then attached is test from 10/23 which the result came back negative but the wording of the test is different. 
1. I bought the same exact test from quest both times. Is this rephrase in wording not at all alarming? I take it as they r doing confirmation testing to confirm the positive result. Could you advise your professional thoughts and could I let you know when the result when I get it back?
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H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
9 months ago
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Why didn't you tell me of your test results before now?? Depending on timing of the tests compared with your last possible exposure(s) those results should be very reassuring.
That completes the two follow-up comments and replies included with each question and so ends this thread. Please do not post another question here until and unless you have seen a doctor or clinic about this situation. At that time, and only then, we might have further comments about your situation. In the meantime, do not be worried. It is very unlikely you are infected. I hope the discussion has been helpful.
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