So sorry to be back doctors but I did want to get overall clarification of HPV as well. As you can see from previous discussions with both of you, encounter was brief unprotected anal (1 minute) with 45 year old. 9 lifetime partners all but 3 were protected. 2 were husband ex husband and myself. I saw her 2021, 2016, 2013, 2012, 2011 pap results for all high risk strains and all negative. She had Cystoscopy and Colonoscopy in May this year and nothing abnormal. About a week ago I received my 1st gardasil 9 vaccine. Not sure why i was never offered this as a youngster. I have read previous threads from you all and see that almost everyone will have been exposed to at least one HPV strain and possibly many more. My concern are the GW causing ones. I have had 5 partners my entire life including this one. Information online places this women in a lower risk category with a prevalence if HPV 6 and 11 at around 4% and 1%. Not sure if that is correct. Im assuming prevalence means actively infectious. I am assuming she has either had it in the past and never had warts (her words) and cleared it or has never had HPV 6 or 11 which seems unlikely given her partners and her ex husband cheating unprotected so much. Wife has had 3 lifetime partners that I know of. Im more concerned about the visible proof of infidelity. Hard to argue way out of that one. Both females unvaccinated.

Meant to add Questions 12077 and 12093

I'm sorry you're back. Looking at your two previous threads, it is obvious you are continuing to seriously overreact to a near zero risk situation.---

I completely understand doctor and I can honestly say I was very respectful in how I asked. She had actually given me all of this info before hand I just didnt really look closely at anything related to HPV until the whole wart thing came up. I also apologized to her for not being vaccinated and potentially putting her at risk as well. I was not aware that routine paps check for hpv 6 and 11 since they arent listed on the results page she shared. I should have assumed they would check for those as well. The internet is a very misleading place with a lot of misleading information. Some website says almost everyone who acquires HPV 6 or 11 dont develop warts (over 90%) which based on the forum is false. Seems more like 50-70% do. I can say that my genital symptoms have gotten much better since my results from the other test. Still some discomfort but I attribute that to stress and anxiety leading to issues with my pelvic floor. I also wanted to ask the question since I see that this information is not common on the forum regarding heterosexual anal. Some website like the ncbi say that anal is riskier for single events then vaginal while other say its not. Having the information here and it being current can help others as well. I get the second dose next month on the 20th which hopefully will reduce any type of recurrence I may have in the future. 

My understanding indeed is that routine HPV testing with pap usually includes HPV 6 and 11, but that might not always be the case. I didn't mean to mislead you. Still, whether or not she was tested for these types, there is almost no chance she had either one of them---

I saw her pap results and they listed the high risk types which were a bunch. I didnt see 6 or 11 but I cant say they didnt check for those. I would assume they would visually inspect as well during pap smears and the other two procedures she had earlier this year. One was a colonoscopy and the other a cystoscopy I think. Nothing related to warts but some regular check ups she said she does for cancer prevention due to family history. I would also assume that adding the pap and the other two visual inspections with the cameras would further reduce the likely hood she had any active infection? My understanding from the forum is that once the infection clears, its no longer transmissible, even when DNA can be found. Unless of course you have a reactivation which according to the site is rare/uncommon. By that logic I would assume that most of us past 30 who have had HPV infections have already cleared the infections and are likely not transmissible most of the time. Unless of course its a brand new infection with a new strain. Am I understanding the basics of HPV? So because she has been negative for so many consecutive paps, the assumption is if she had any of those HPV strains, they have already cleared and she has yet to reactivate and may not reactivate? Same could go for me? Just because I havent had any visible warts that doesnt mean I havent contracted HPV 6 or 11 in the past and wont ever get warts in the future?

I'm sorry, but this is too much. You have been advised about the near zero risk of HPV from the exposure described, as well as the lack of any health consequence (or consequences for your marriage) if you were infected. I have neither the time nor energy to read this essay. Correct, just because you haven't had warts does not prove you don't have HPV 6 or 11. But it is unlikely. You're also asking me to repeat previous replies in different words -- I've already said your partner's sexual history makes it unlikely she as any active STTD.

 

I do hope the discussions have been useful. Best wishes to you.

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