[Question #12167] New exposure

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9 months ago
Hi docs, 
Similar questions but new exposure- about a month ago I got an unprotected bj from a friend- ( no stis before this bj)  two weeks later I start dating a new girl. Had sex with her, now she’s stating I gave her chlamydia. I haven’t had actual sex in a year, just a few bjs from a friend - maybe 3. The bjs were shallow, no ejaculation and definitely didn’t touch her throat. I haven’t gotten tested yet. What’s the likelihood I actually gave her chlamydia if I only have gotten bjs, and she’s the first person I have had actual sex with in a while since my negative std tests. FYI I haven’t had symptoms either. From what I recall you guys said not really possible to pass oral chlamydia? Could this girl have had an infection before we got together 
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H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
9 months ago
Welcome back to the forum. Thanks for your continued confidence in our services.

You correctly remember our previous discussions. In at least one of your questions a year and a half ago, we discussed the rarity of urethral (penile) chlamydia from oral sex. Oral chlamydia is itself rare, and when it happens typically it is not transmissible to sex partners. That's why you almost certainly do not have urethral chlamydia. Given your new partner's belief, you should be tested for it, but almost certainly the result will be negative. If your test is positive, it will be almost certain she infected you, not the other way around.  It is exceedingly unlikely you are the source of your partner's chlamydial infection. Chlamydia can last months or even a couple of years in women, and some previous sex partner is a much more likely source.

After you are tested, you should be treated for chlamydia because of your exposure -- even if your test is negative. Not because you are the likely source of her infection, but because of your sexual exposure from her. See a doctor and discuss the situation, and expect a prescription for doxycycline for 7 days.

I hope this information is helpful. Let me know if anything isn't clear.

HHH, MD
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9 months ago
Thanks for the reply Dr. H! I am sure you understood, but I just wanted to be clear, I was never tested for STI after my bjs from a friend. With this information, do you still stand by your thoughts that she would have infected me and not the other way around? 

Not that it matters, but I wanted you to know that I have taken your advice very seriously over the last year and a half. I make sure to read studies, I never ejaculate in a girls mouth, because even though it’s rare, I would hate to give some one something . ( I read a study oh pharyngeal chlamydia where 1.7 % of msm had pharyngeal chlamydia, but none were associated with oral without ejaculation or deep kissing), I figured the statistics would be similar to female who give oral sex. 

Sorry to go on about that, but that’s why I came to you. I just want to make sure I am not the source of this girls infection. I don’t see the need to ask my bj friend to get orally tested, since it’s been over a month- if it were her, her infection would be gone, right? I was tested today- hopefully my results are negative! 
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H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
9 months ago
I understood you had not been tested. Yes I stand by my comments above:  assuming your partner has truly had a positive test for chlamydia, you were exposed; that's far more likely than the chance you were infected from the oral sex event and transferred it to your female partner.

Whether or not you ejaculate into the mouth of a partner in oral sex probably makes no difference in that person's STD risk. With or without ejaculation, if you have a urethral or penile STD (gonorrhea etc) your partner is at risk of being infected.

Be very careful interpreting online information about oral chlamydia. The test is for chlamydial RNA, and in over half those positive the culture is negative, i.e. no living chlamydia that can be transmitted. And most positive result become negative soon without treatment. World wide there have been very few if any documented cases of urethral chlamydia resulting from oral sex. Future research could change this -- the entire situation about oral chlamydia has a lot of uncertainty -- but this the state of the knowledge and professional consensus at this time.
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9 months ago
Thanks- last question … what do you feel is the true percentage of asymptomatic urethetal chlamydia infections in men? I have seen anywhere from 10- 60 % are asymptomatic. I obviously got tested, but I don’t have any symptoms so just curious 
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H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
9 months ago
There is "confusion" -- i.e. varied information online and elsewhere -- partly because good data do not exist; and the question can be asked two ways:  1) Among all newly acquired urethral infections, what proportion do not develop symptoms (as a rough estimate, probably 10-20%). 2) Of all men with urethral chlamydia at any point in time, what proportion have no symptoms? Here I would estimate ~50%. A third factor is differences in how men perceive symptoms:  in STD clinics, we see men all the time who say they have noticed nothing wrong but have abnormal discharge on exam which other men would notice. Should they be considered symptomatic or asymptomatic?

With no visible discharge, including early morning when you haven't urinated overnight, most likely your test will be negative. But you still should be treated with doxycycline as noted above.

That completes the two follow-up exchanges included with each question and so ends this thread. I hope the discussion has been helpful. Best wishes and stay safe.
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