Hello

I am a male who had a sexual encounter with a girl early October (protected vaginal intercourse and unprotected fellatio), then when I got home a couple days later, had protected sex with my gf. 
Fast forward about 2 weeks, I have:
Muscle ache - thighs, then also armpits and lower back

Joint aches, I think just in knees

Sore throat

Frequent urination for a few days

Random muscle twitches

Low fever (37.5 C)

Pressure in lower abdomen

Mild pain/pressure on the tip of penis

Night sweats

Chills

Nausea

Loss of appetite

Diarrhea for a day

-Itching randomly all over body

Really bad itching in the back of scalp

Stiff neck

Waking up at 3-4 am (could be from anxiety and stress, not sure)

A few small cherry angioma/petechiae looking red dots on the body
I had done a few Full Panel STD tests everything is negative, had done multiple 4th gen tests all negative, the latest 4th gen was 29 days post exposure - negative, also did HIV1/HIV2 - Qualitative RNA test at 26 days, negative.
A few days after me, my gf also had flu-like symptoms, pain in thighs, nausea, also a few small cherry angioma/petechiae looking red dots on the body, and now she has a rash, which is like non-itchy papules that dry up in a few days then get mildly itchy afterwards, these are appearing mainly in her arms and legs.

1. Are my tests all false negative because maybe it was too early?
2. The girl I has sex with was from Russia and I think she had been in eastern Europe, could it be that she had HIV-2 and that's why my HIV1/HIV2 - Qualitative RNA didn't detect the viral load?

You have already proven that you do not have HIV.  You need to move on.  EWH

I guess what I am trying to understand is, is there any other STDs, I need to look at if it is NOT HIV (my latest 4th gen test was after 29 days, and RNA 26 days), could the rash be syphilis?

I have read a lot of your replies in other post where you suggest that 6 weeks is conclusive for HIV, so should I still be worried?

I know how I sound right now, but given all these symptoms (in me and my gf) you should excuse my thick-headedness

You  do not have HIV - your results, including the PCR are conclusive.  Give up on this.  If your GF's rash was due to syphilis or other STIs, your tests would have been positive.

You need t address your guilt and move on.  EWH

2. If the viral load is low enough that it is not detectible, would it still be transmissible?

3. Back to my specific situation, I had multiple 4th gen tests, but the last one was 29 days after exposure, given that I had all these symptoms for over 10 days before my last 4th gen test, would the test detect the p24 antigen or the abs at this time?

4. And last one, are my symptoms, ARS specific?

Thank you for everything you do. 

I am planning to get another 4th gen test in 2 months (3 months post exposure), hoping to get another non-reactive result and just put this nightmare behind me. So, if (when) it is non-reactive will definitely purchase another question here and post an update, at least it could be useful for other people who might find themselves in my shoes.

1. Is it true that hiv-2 can have low viral loads that might go undetected by the hiv-1/hiv-2 Qualitative RNA tests?

No.  These tests are the "gold standard" for detection of HIV-1 or -2.  All tests have "limits of detection".  If you had HIV of any sort, your tests would be positive.

No, and some are not at all related to ARS including urinary frequency, lower abdominal or penile "pressure", random itching and occasional muscle twitches.

End of thread.  EWH