Sorry to be back but I did have a follow up question in retrospect.  When you say I am at zero risk from any and all stis, do you include HPV?  17 months ago I had condom protected handjob performed on me much to my shame.  My wife's pap and testing was negative for HPV.  But I am worried If anything may pop up from my indiscretion, like a wart or something.  Thank you for all you do and look forward to hearing back from you 

As for all other STDs, HPV is not transmitted by hand-genital contact. You were not at risk. And even if there were a theoretical risk, the condom would have been excellent protection.

Assuming you had other sexual experiences prior to your wife, and that she did as well (the normal pattern in most of the world), either of you is likely to have been infected with HPV, and HPV infections sometimes reactivate. This is why all women, regardless of their sexual histories, need to follow standard Pap smear guidelines. If your wife were ever to have a Pap smear inducing an HPV infection, it will not be from the hand-genital contact event you asked about. In that event, it will not be possible (or necessary) to know when and from whom the infection was acquired, but there will be no reason to suspect either of you had any extra-marital sexual exposures.

In other words, your event 17 months ago should not concern you at all in regard to HPV (or any other STD, as discussed last time).

Let me know if anything isn't clear.

HHH, MD

A couple of points of clarification and I don't want to read between any lines here.  You state HPV is not transmitted by the hand-genital contac

You state HPV not transmitted by hand-genital contact and I was not at risk.  But then mention a theoretical risk.  Sorry I don't want to be confused.  Is HPV transmitted by hand-genital contact?   Was my risk zero?

Finally my wife and I have been married for 31 yrs. Would an HPV or pap test when he next is due in 3 yrs mean or could have been from my past or her past.  I did have a condom protected oral encounter 10 yrs ago.  All of my wife's testing has been negative to date 

Thanks again 

If either of you ever has evidence of an HPV infection, it will be from one of your (or your wife's) past sexual experiences, no matter how long ago. And not from your event 17 months ago. Probably it will never happen -- but if it does, it won't indicate any sexual infidelity on your part or hers.

Everybody gets it and everybody has a potential for reactivation. It is a normal, expected, unavoidable aspect of human sex. 

Thanks again 

If and when your wife ever has a positive HPV test (e.g. abnormal Pap smear) it will never be possible to know where and from whom she acquired it. In any case, it will not be from any of your own sexual events causing you all this unnecessary anxiety.

That completes the two follow-up comments and replies included with each question and so ends this thread. It also should be your last about any aspects of your infrequent extramarital sexual events. Thanks. I do hope the discussion has been helpful.