I have a question pertaining to testing. If I did an RNA PCR test 10 days after exposure and it was negative after a low to no risk event (receiving oral) yet I had symptoms of a flu, would this test also be positive after symptom onset? I’ve seen this stated for abag tests but I’m trying to understand why an RNA test would be positive. ChatGPT, collating sources like the body, seems to think that tests may still be negative following exposure but I know you gents are the gold standard from MedHelp so trying to understand the science. 

Before I answer your specific question, let me inform you that there are NO proven cases of HIV which have been acquired from receipt of oral sex.  You are not going to be the first.  Had you asked if you needed testing at all, I would have said no.  

The symptoms of the ARS are due to the interaction of the HIV virus and antibodies.  Thus if your symptoms were due to HIV, an HIV RNA PCR test would certainly be positive.  You can be entirely confident that if symptoms were due to HIV, a PCR test would be positive.  Chat GPT is incorrect.  EWH

Understood- I figured it was wrong from reading responses here but I wasn’t sure if it applied to PCR tests also. Yes, noted about the oral. This forum is a great resource. 

Thanks again. You may close the thread, doctor. Happy New Year!