[Question #12527] Oral Sex Exposure 22 days and RNA
7 months ago
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Hi Doctors.
I had an unprotected oral sex roughly about three weeks ago, but no vaginal sex or anything else. While I know the risk is negligible, my anxiety has driven me to test and I have the HIV RNA test coming in an hour.
But I have a cold now (or can be flu but I never had fever), 90% healed but i still have a very slight sore throat and phlegm. I do not have any flu vaccine, may I know if viral respiratory infections cause false positive in the RNA test? Will RNA test pick up some virus not related to HIV?
Secondly, may I know if this can be considered conclusive if the test is done 22 days post exposure?
Lastly, may I also know, if acute HIV symptoms have occurred already, does it mean the RNA test will definitely pick it up given the body has already started to react?
Thank you very much.
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
7 months ago
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Welcome to the Forum. Thanks for your questions. I'll be glad to comment. FYI no one has ever been proven to acquire HIV from receipt of oral sex. You are not going to be the first. I understand that you are anxious about the encounter you describe and for I am confident that when you test, the test will show that you were not infected. In response to your own questions:
HIV RNA PCR tests provide absolutely conclusive evidence of the presence or absence of HIV any time more than 11 days after an encounter of concern. Your results will be conclusive when you get your test results. This is the case no matter whether or not you have symptoms.
Please don't worry. EWH
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7 months ago
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Hi Doctor,
I have just done the RNA test. The nurse has told me that a 4th gen + RNA test will be even more accurate so I did the combined ones, thanks for the assurance, I believe I will not have to worry anymore and do any further test if the test is negative?
Aside from the HIV exposure. I have this question in mind all the time, while I do not expect a concrete answer coz it’s not possible anymore, just wanted to see if you have any insights.
10 months ago I had an unprotected sex with my colleague and I felt a sudden intense pain in my testicle. Few days later I had green discharge on my penis, but all STD test came back negative, urine analysis also shows no sign of bacterial infection, including the E.Coli or other bacteria not related to STD. I was given 14 days of levofloxacin, discharge went away in 3 days, until now I still have occasional slight pain around the right testicle (never on the left).
I assumed it was gonnorhea or Chlamydia but apparently it’s not, the doctor stuck his finger into my anus and said my prostate was a bit swollen so it’s acute prostatitis they said. My question is: isn’t it always an infection if discharge is geeen? Shouldn’t it be bacterial or viral infection? Have you come across anything similar?
Thanks!
7 months ago
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Hi Doc, hope you had a good night sleep!
I have now received the report and both the p24 and RNA are negative.
However I noticed that the RNA is only testing for HIV-1, but I do assume the p24 tests for both strains? May I also know if there’s nothing to worry about?
Thanks!
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
7 months ago
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You are correct that green discharge is highly suggestive of infection. Your tests rule out gonorrhea and chlamydia but you may have had non-chlamydial non-gonococcal urethritis. Prostatitis can be caused by a variety of different bacteria which are often successfully treated with levofloxacin.
Some PCR tests test only for HIV-1, the most common cause of HIV while others test for HIV-2 as well. If your exposure occurred in North America HIV-1 testing is sufficient as there is almost no HIV-2 seen in the US and when it is, it occurs in persons who are from or have traveled to West Africa or India. Even then, the vast majority persons who become infected have HIV-1 which you have conclusively ruled out.
Personally I would not worry further and would not seek additional testing. EWH
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7 months ago
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Hi Doctor,
I’m far far away from Africa / India so I believe I don’t have to worry about HIV-2, combining the test result and my neglegible risk of exposure I believe I’m not infected, but just out of curiosity, what’s the proportion of HIV1 and HIV2 worldwide among the infected population?
One last question, while I’m not too concerned about the other STIs, I know that syphilis can also transmit through oral sex and apparently the window period is also the longest among the other bacterial infections. May I know if 28 days are sufficient to have a conclusive test?
I’m not too worried but better be safe than sorry and get myself tested after the exposure at the right timing with/without symptoms.
Thank you again.
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
7 months ago
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Worldwide, less than 1-2% of HIV is due to HIV-2 and in North America and Western Europe the proportion is a very small fraction of 1%
At 28 with no lesions present well over 90% (and probably considerably more) would be positive.
As you know, this 3rd response is the final response as part of this thread. I anticipate that any tests you perform will be negative for HIV and other STIs. Take care. EWH.
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