Hello, I'm 28 and in a 10 year + relationship with my GF, we've both been our first and only sex partner. I had two sexual encounters with escorts on seperate occassions in Oct. and Nov. of 2024, both times for prox 15 min, I've used protection for oral and vaginal. I got a full pannel std test 2,5 months after the last encounter, everything negative. On the 2nd encounter I came in contact with her vaginal fluids (strong smell) during sex, groin/testicle/pubic area. Escorts share the same risk of HPV as everybody else. HPV transmission is more likely to happen when two partners sleep together often - for examp. in a relationship. Both women were in their 30s, since they work escort they surely had hpv exposure in the past, no one can say if they had an active infection at the time of sex with me or not. If the infection was active they would most likely have passed it to me. It's very likely to aquire HPV if you had 3 or more sex partners in your life. For me this would be 2 since my GF and I have been exclusive. Altough 2 year plus incubation of HPV is rare, it seems that a lot of people write of these things happening to them in their relationships - positive test years later from one contact only. I assume that this information is unreliable. My question is, all things considered do I have a relatively high or low risk of getting it? Is the likelyhood of me passing it (if and when I'm active) to my girlfiend lower than me getting it in the first place? She got vaccinated as a teen, cancer risk low, will it even be detecteable? Is there any other std i should get tested for now - 1 year later, is the risk for all other std or bacteria over, should I worry at all?