This is an old press release from the U.S. National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases: “Even if weeks have passed since it healed, the site of a genital herpes sore may be especially prone to being infected by HIV, U.S. researchers say. In a small but detailed study of eight HIV-negative people (all but one of them women), the researchers found a dramatically higher number of CD4 cells just under the skin where a genital herpes sore used to be. When they took samples of that skin for lab testing, they found HIV was able to replicate as much as five times more within that skin than areas that had never been affected by a genital herpes sore.” I am confused because experts always say that HIV can not pass through intact skin. What is your understanding of this, and has there been any additional research on this topic? I have HSV2 at the base of my penis where condom cannot cover. I always use a condom, but am I at increased risk of HIV transmission from females who are HIV+ because of the mechanism described above even if my lesions are fully healed?

Thanks for the reply. I always use a condom, but as I said, it does not cover the base of my penis. So, I am wondering if you think its possible or likely that when a woman's vaginal fluids or blood comes into contact with that intact skin at the base of my penis, am I at risk of HIV transmission? I am thinking the following: 1. The vaginal fluids would be exposed to air at the same time they come into contact with my skin, so would the virus die before having a chance to infect me? 2. Presumably there are 10's of millions of men who have genital herpes at or near the base of their penis - a place which can't be covered by a condom. So, if it were possible for the virus to pass through intact skin at a previous site of genital herpes wouldn't we have millions of men (who use condoms) contracting HIV through this situation?? 3.  There are many studies with discordant couples that show near 100% protection when condoms are correctly used and don't fail, which again seems to point to it being unlikely for transmission through intact skin even at the site of previous herpes infection. What does the research show, and what do you think based on your many years of experience with this?