Hello a few days ago I asked a question regarding my risk and reliability of my test. It was question #12669. So to summarize it, I had an exposure at a massage parlor, she gave me a hand job and put her finger in my anus. The second one was that I had unprotected sex with a coworker. So I did my 4th gen hiv test 28 days from the 1st potential exposure at the massage parlor, but I had unprotected sex with my coworker 3 days after that, So my latest negative test is actually 25 days from my last potential exposure not 28, would this change the reliability of the test?  She recently had a Pap smear and assumed they tested for STDs but they did not actually test for HIV and other STDs. I don’t know the HIV status of either of them and it is really starting to worry me. Should I go get re tested asap or just wait until the 45 day mark. My Dr, seems to think that both of these were extremely low risk scenarios and stated that latest test was very reassuring, but that was under the impression that my last potential exposure was 28 days ago but it was actually 25 days ago. Just wanted to see what your thoughts were on this. 

 

Welcome back to the Forum although I'm sorry you felt the need.  That your test was at 25 rather than 28 days does not change my assessment.  I agree with your doctor.  If you feel you even need further testing, I would wait until 6 weeks had passed so that your results will be absolutely conclusive.  I am confident when you test that the results will show that you were not infected.  EWH---

So even though I don’t know the HIV status of either partner, they would still be considered low risk exposures? Why’s that? I kind of understand the hand job and fingering being low risk as no bodily fluid is being exchanged but what about the vaginal sex? She performed oral sex on me and we then had vaginal sex. She had a negative HIV test way back in September as routine testing but nothing more recent. She has one consistent partner and says I was the only other person she’s been with besides that partner. My anxiety is a little bit better but I am just curious as to why they’re low risk exposures. 

Sigh.  Most people, including most commercial sex workers, do not have HIV. Even when they do, most receive treatment, making them non-infectious. In the unlikely situation that you had vaginal sex with an HIV infected, untreated person your risk of requiring HIV would be on average less than one in 2000. Thus, given The fact that your partner was unlikely to be infected and the low risk of any single unprotected encounter, there is a 99.98% chance that you would not be infected during a single encounter. This certainly qualifies as low risk.---

I appreciate the feedback. I am still going to get tested at 45 days just for my anxiety. Today is 32 days from the last time I had sex and I woke up with a sore throat, body aches, headache and slight fever so I am trying to not freak myself out since I know those can be HIV symptoms but my whole family is currently infected with strep and influenza A so I’m sure it’s most likely from that. Thank you again for the help. 

Testing is, of course, up to you.  As you know, if you test at this time, the result will tell you whether or not your current symptoms are due to HIV but your results will not be conclusive until 6 weeks after your encounter.  ---