[Question #12986] STD Asymptomatic question
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3 months ago
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Around 3 months ago I had protected oral and vaginal intercourse with a CSW. I was tested 4 days after that occurrence for gon, chl, and trich, all of which were negative. I was the fully tested exactly 4 weeks after the event with a 10 panel lapcorp test plus trich, all of which were negative. My girlfriend and I were having unprotected intercourse during this time.
Fast forward to three weeks ago, I went to a strip club while away for work. I got a lap dance that lasted for around 30 minutes. No genitals were exposed during this, she was wearing underwear and so was I. I did not think anything of it. When I returned, around 3 days later, I had unprotected intercourse with my partner and two days later she complained that she was starting her period early. Towards the end of her period , she had a Pap smear and today it came back showing inflammation, which has never happened before, which has got me worried.
My questions are:
1. Could the previous tests been false negatives? The only symptoms I have shown are slight pain AFTER urination and some urethral pain. I have had pain with urination, discharge, or lesions.
2. could I have an asymptomatic STD that caused her to start early and show up on the Pap smear?
3. Is HPV a possibility?
4, can a rough covered lap dance transfer an infection?
Thank you docs as this has caused me much anxiety after hearing about her Pap smear.
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3 months ago
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The first question should say “I have NOT had those symptoms”
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
3 months ago
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Welcome to our Forum. Thanks for your questions and for your implied confidence in our service. I'll be glad to comment.
Your encounter 3 months was very low risk and you proved you were not infected by testing twice with negative results. The tests you had for gonorrhea, chlamydia and trich are amongst the most sensitive tests in all of medicine and if you were infected you would not have tested negative twice. Your subsequent lap dance was also no risk- most exotic dancers do not have STIs, when they are, most single exposures do not lead to infection, and STIs are not transmitted through material including underwear, even when that material is wet with genital secretions. I think your GF's early period and inflammation are due to something other than the encounters you describe. In reply to your specific questions:
1. Could the previous tests been false negatives? The only symptoms I have shown are slight pain AFTER urination and some urethral pain. I have had pain with urination, discharge, or lesions.
See my comments above. I suspect the symptoms you have noticed are related to looking harder than you normally would for specific symptoms, something that often leads to noticing normal sensations which might otherwise be missed.
2. could I have an asymptomatic STD that caused her to start early and show up on the Pap smear?
This would be very unusual.
3. Is HPV a possibility?
HPV does not cause inflammatory changes. If signs of HPV were present on her PAP smear, the report would have said so.
4, can a rough covered lap dance transfer an infection?
A rough lap dance might cause you some local irritation but this would not be able to be transmitted to your regular partner.
I suspect your partner's recent events are unrelated to either of the encounters you describe. A bit of guilt on your part may be making you worry more than you need to. There is no need for further testing. Try not to worry. EWH
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3 months ago
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Absent additional symptoms, was 4 weeks long enough to wait for accurate results on the blood tests? Are STDs really asymptomatic as many internet articles say? Genuinely curious about this.
Could any other actions at the club cause any transfer of infection, I.e. her fluids on my hand transferred to me when I used the restroom? I know for 100% fact there was no interrcourse, oral or otherwise. Just racking my brain over things that could have happened that I just chalked up to no exposure or risk.
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
3 months ago
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Yes, 4 weeks will provide additional information although I would not consider your blood test results conclusive until 6 weeks. No matter when you test however, I am confident that your blood tests will be negative. Further, the infections reliably diagnosed by blood tests, syphilis and HIV, would not cause your partners symptoms.
As I already said, I am confident your partner's symptoms are unrelated to the encounters you described.
One follow-up remaining. EWH
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3 months ago
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Randomly tonight I began to feel pain in my right testicle. Probably 6 on the 10 scale. Are there any STIs that cause pain in one testicle, absent of any discharge or dysuria? Could some infection be causing this pain as well as the inflammation reported on the Pap smear? Thanks for your final reply.
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3 months ago
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To clarify, The pain is in the area where epiidymitis would occur.
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
3 months ago
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This will be the final response.
The STIs that you have proven you do not have, gonorrhea and chlamydia, can infect the epididymis, as can other bacteria. When the epididymis becomes infected, the pain does not come and go, but is continuous. Typically, persons with STI related epididymitis Have discharge and burning on urination present at the same time. I suspect the discomfort you are feeling is unrelated to the encounter you describe. If the pain continues, however I would suggest you suggest you discuss it with your regular doctor.
---We provide up to three responses to each clients question. This is my third response. Therefore, this thread will now be closed. Take care. EWH.