[Question #13507] HIV Risk

5 days ago

Hello doc

Yesterday during a eroctic massage I think I might have penetrated the masseuse while body rubbing. She wore a thin layer white coloured Innerwear which is generally given in massage parlours and I was completely naked. The Innerwear she wore was initially worn by me after few minutes I gave it to her and I was completely naked .During the body rubbing I was on top of her and Might have penetrated her once or twice but she wore the thin layered underwear after that I stopped and she gave me a oral and climaxed me with handjob.

My questions are

1. Is there any risk for HIV if the penetration was once and twice with the thin fabric Innerwear she wore and I was totally naked. The penetration was not deep it might have just went in on the opening part of vagina. Also I had pre cum and her Innerwear was wet.

2. I am not worried about oral because I know HIV isn’t passed through it and she had no visible sores on her mouth for other std’s.

5 days ago

3. Also Doc I just checked I have bleeding gums and we kissed deeply too is there any risk from this exposure

H. Hunter Handsfield, MD

5 days ago

Welcome back to the forum.

As for your previous two questions 3 and 6 months ago, you had a very low risk sexual exposure.

1. It seems unlikely there was significant penile penetration; it is hard to imagine not knowing for sure. Even if it did, no STI is likely to be transmitted through fabric. And such brief penetration would be nearly risk free even without your partner's innerwear.

2. Correct that oral sex carries little or no risk for HIV. However, unprotected oral sex can result in gonorrhea or syphilis. It's good your partner had no visible oral lesions, but of course that doesn't guarantee no risk.

3. Bleeding gums is one of those factors often speculated to raise the risk of HIV if exposed. However, HIV is rarely if ever transmitted by oral exposure, either by kissing or oral sex. This does not affect the very low to zero risk of HIV in your situation.

I hope these comments are helpful. Let me know if anything isn't clear.

HHH, MD

You might want to consider testing for gonorrhea a few days after the event and a syphilis blood test after 6 weeks.

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4 days ago

Hey Dr Handsfeild thanks for the reply. Doc sorry that I did not mention that I have had 5 to 6 exposures with the same woman in past 1 year and also got tested in between for all std’s (except for gonorrhoea) which came back to be negative. We used to only do oral and kissing but never had penetrative vaginal sex and last exposure as I shared before I thought I had penetrated through vagina so that was the reason to post the question firstly. So doc should I get tested for gonorrhea even though I never had symptoms before for the past exposures.

H. Hunter Handsfield, MD

4 days ago

On one hand, if you your partner has other partners (e.g. a sex worker?), she might acquire a new STD at any time. In that case, that you have not been infected from several exposures over the last year doesn't mean you are out of danger for STDs. On the other hand, absence of symptoms is strong evidence you do not have urethral (i.e. penile) gonorrhea, since almost all cases cause obvious symptoms (pus dripping, painful urination). Anyway, it's up to you whether to be tested for reassurance.---