I meet East EU girls 18–26. I do this once every 2 months. I receive unprotected oral, have protected vaginal, and perform anal licking on the escorts.

With my wife, we have had only protected vaginal for the past 6 months. Before last August, we sometimes had unprotected vaginal.

My wife recently made HPV test (1st time). She has only had me as a partner (ex for one partner many years ago), and she believes that if she tests positive for HPV, it would be from me. I told her that I had other partners about ten years ago before meeting her. I will argue any HPV infection would date from that period. Is that reasonable if I had no extra affairs?

After 6 months without any unprotected sex with my wife, is there still a risk that any of her other std tests could come back positive for STD transmitted by me? Her urine and blood exams are perfect + recent

If she has HPV, trying to figure out where it came from is a waste of time.  If your wife is unvaccinated and had even a single partner prior to entering a monogamous relationship with you, there is a 40-60% likelihood that she acquired HPV.  If you had multiple partners long before you entered the relationship with your wife, there is an approximately 80% likelihood that you acquired one or more strains of HPV which could well be asymptomatic.  Your argument that IF she has HPV is correct (and you do not know that she does- why does she think she does?), there is simply no way to know where it came from.  

I would have no concern about other STIs.  Further, there is no reason to modify your current sexual practices.  If you have HPV she has been exposed.

 I hope this information and perspective is helpful.  EWH