1. tested negative for both types on western blot after a concerning encounter. Recently kissed someone, closed mouth, that has confirmed oral cold sores and plan on continuing kissing this person, although for now just closed mouth. If I decided to do another Western Blot and it was positive for HSV1, this would almost certainly be an oral infection correct, even if I don’t develop symptoms? No unprotected sex or oral sex after negative WB. Should I be worried about late seroconversion that first WB didn’t pick up? 

If you waited 12 weeks from any kissing or receiving oral sex to doing the first blot, then I'm confused about why the blots are different.  Sometimes, when I get results I don't understand, I ask the lab to reread the blot.  Did you do the blot through me?  If yes, I would be happy to ask the lab to reread the blot.  If you did it through your own provider, you could ask them to contact the lab to reread the blots again.  ---

Sorry to clarify. I didn’t have another blot done, I was just wanting to know if I take another blot from the last time I kissed this person and it came back positive, that would mean an oral infection right? Not late seroconversion? I kissed this person after my negative Western Blot. 

There might have been a few times where I closed mouthed kissed someone prior to the western blot, but I took the blot out of concern,13 weeks from an unprotected sex encounter with someone who might have had genital hsv1. So basically, just wanting to confirm that if I wanted to take another western blot down the line, that if positive, it would be an oral infection and not a genital one due to late seroconversion from the unprotected sex encounter. This is assuming not more unprotected sex or oral sex.  

Sorry to add on, and if you still wouldn’t mind to answer the previous two posts. Let me know if I need to pay more! 

Yes, if you did another blot now and it was positive, then that would be an oral infection because you waited long enough from any concerning sexual encounter to doing the blot.  And I'm not sure why you are assuming that you have a recent oral infection because you don't have a lab suggesting that you do, but if you do, for some reason, then I still don't believe that you would have infected your foot by scratching, no.  Both because the skin is too thick AND because there wouldn't be enough virus.  As I recall the innervation into the foot of the sacral ganglia is the back of the foot, not the top---