I am following up on our previous exchange and wanted to let you know that my syphilis serology (IgG and IgM) was negative at 8 weeks. I would like to ask one final clarifying question to close this topic for me, as there is a lot of confusing information online and via AI, and I trust your expertise and forum far more. Is it correct that a negative syphilis blood test (negative IgG) means that I have never been infectious to others, including my wife? And specifically: even in the hypothetical situation sometimes mentioned online, where someone is treated very early and therefore never develops IgG antibodies, this would mean the infection was aborted before it could ever have been transmitted to anyone else? thx