Let’s say my new partner recently tested positive for Chlamydia and then I go get tested as well and I to have it. I then call my previous partner before her who I had intercourse with and have been her only partner since the last time she was tested. She tests negative for Chlamydia after I call her with proof. What are the chances that I myself had Chlamydia and didn’t transit it to her knowing that she never had it because she tested negative meaning that neither of us gave it to each other. But now my new partner has tested positive and now so have I cuz we have had sex. So I suppose my question is how likely is it that I never had Chlamydia given that my previous partner before my new one tested negative and has never had it.

Welcome to the Forum.  There is no doubt that you have, or, if you’ve been treated, had chlamydia.  There are several possibilities that explain your results.  You certainly could have had chlamydia and transmitted it to your prior partner.  Then, your previous partner may have had chlamydia and cured herself without therapy as happens with the passage of time.  The longer the time interval since your last encounter with her and testing, the more likely it is that spontaneous clearance without treatment occurred.  An alternative explanation is that you acquired chlamydia from your current partner.  Either way, you are certainly infected and need treatment, as does your current partner.  Please don’t delay seeking treatment for you and your partner.---