I recently had condom protected anal sex with a male (I am also male). I was the insertive partner. I say sex, I barely inserted and the interaction lasted maybe 15 seconds, all condom protected. No symptoms since from me so about a week and a half later I had unprotected sex with my wife. As of January 20th, I tested negative for Chlamydia and Gonorrhea.

Yesterday, 3 days after we had sex, my wife awoke with severe abdominal pain and a fever. A visit to the ER ruled out appendicitis and a number of other potential causes. Today, her pain has mostly subsided but with the onset of pretty severe diarrhea and a fever later in the day but not most of the day

1. Could she have a STI related infection that would cause these symptoms? She had a transvaginal ultrasound and a CT that showed nothing of concern

2. ER ran a urinalysis and CMP. Blood work showed no WBC irregularities but urinalysis showed high RBC and an abnormal Nitrite and Mucus reading. Would this potentially indicate something of concern?

From reading this forum, the fact that I recently tested negative for both Chlamydia and Gonorrhea and had protected (if you want to call it that) sex would reasonably indicate that her symptoms are unrelated, but obviously anxiety has lead me here. Thanks for the work you do

You can be sure your wife's symptoms are entirely unrelated to your sexual dalliance 3 days earlier. First, there was no realistic chance you were infected during the exposure as you have described it -- especially with a condom, and even if there had been no condom such brief contact would have been little or no risk. Second, no infection can develop to a point of being transmitted to another person in under 2-3 days; and if somehow THAT happened, symptoms in the newly exposed persons could not start until 2-3 days after that. In other words, there wasn't nearly enough time between the events for you to have been infected, transmitted to your wife, and for her to start to have symptoms. On top of all that, if such symptoms were due to STD, they could not be the initial infections. Conceivably pelvic inflammatory disease (PID, i.e. fallopian tube infection) could cause her symptoms, but that would take at least 7-10 days of you being infected yourself. 

The only caveat I would raise is if you had any other similar non-marital sexual contacts in the past few weeks -- in which case the time frame might be consistent with your wife having PID. On the other hand, even in this scenario, your negative recent gonorrhea/chlamydia results essentially exclude you as a source of infecting her. 

Those comments pretty well cover your two questions, but to be explcit:

1. "Could she have an STI related infection...?" No, for the reasons discussed above. And her negative ultrasound and CT scan are reassuring as well.

2. Those lab results are nonspecific and don't point to any significant health problem.

I hope these comments are helpful. Good luck to your wife for rapid recovery (and for eventual diagnosis of her problem). Let me know if anything isn't clear.

HHH, MD

Severe diarrhea. Is that ever a symptom of PID? The ultrasound showed no indication of any cervical or uterine inflammation and her symptoms are starting to subside but a pelvic exam was not performed

No other relations between January and said incident. I’ve had a few before then (maybe 3-5 unprotected oral receiving and 1-3 protected anal where I was insertive). What’s the likelihood that I contracted something asymptomatic, passed it onto her, cleared it before my test and her just now be showing “symptoms”?

The obvious answer is no to both, it’s just reassuring to hear an expert say it and not me. Again, thanks so much

Thanks for the thanks. I'm glad to have helped. That completes the two follow-up comments and replies included with each question and so ends this thread. Best wishes and stay safe.