Welcome back to the forum. Thank you for your continuing confidence in our services.
Glancing at your previous questions, it seems likely you over-estimate the chance of HIV from exposures that have little or no risk. In the US, female to male transmission of HIV is very rare, even with entirely unprotected vaginal sex. I would be very surprised to learn the risk is high in the part of the country where this event occurred. In addition, it is quite peculiar to recommend post exposure prophylaxis (PEP) following a condom protected exposure. I also disagree that a sex worker insisting on her own condom indicates reduced condom effectiveness: the vast majority of sex workers insist on effective and reliable condoms. That she may have trusted her own condom more than yours does not imply reduced safety; if anything, the opposite probably is true.
Did the doctor you say active recommend PEP or did you insist on it despite their advice? If so, I'm not necessarily criticizing you doctor: perhaps s/he has information about the frequency of new HIV in your situation. But you might discuss it again with them.
The newer 3-drug PEP regimens are only slightly better than the 2-drug treatments. I agree with the PA you saw at your second visit that there was no need or reason to add another drug to your regimen.
Those comments start to cover your specific questions, but to assure no misunderstanding:
1) Your overall risk of HIV probably was under one chance in several million.
2) We never advise forum questioners to alter the treatment(s) recommended by their own doctors. You should discuss this again with the doctor who prescribed it.
3) Testing is automatic following PEP. Given your very low risk, you probably could get away without testing -- but then you probably would continue to worry and wonder about it. So I advise you to follow your doctor's advice on this. Usually a single AgAb test (i.e. 4th generation) about 6 weeks after the last dose of PEP is advised.
4) Calculating the exact risk depends on lots of assumptions. In this case, I have no way to judge whether HIV might be especially common in female CSWs in your geographic area. But if we assume average risk, the chance she was infected probably was under 1 in a thousand. If a female partner has untreated HIV, her male partner probably has under 1 chance in 2,000 of catching it. And condoms can be considered 99% effective. These odds would translate into an overall risk of one chance in 200 million that you were infected.
I hope these comments are helpful. Let me know if anything isn't clear.
HHH, MD
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