Hello doctor.

I think there's a confusion on some of the answers and I wasted my last follow up question. The focus of my question changed too so I'm starting a new post if allowed.

To recap. I'm married and had an extra marital affair. Two exposures: last Tuesday, oral sex both ways, Saturday sex with my wife unprotected. Two days ago, 5 second penetration unprotected and oral sex both ways with affair partner.

I mentioned I was not worried about skin stds because I can explain hsv as being transfered from my wives hsv-1 to my penis. Does hsv 1 look different than hsv 2 on penis anyway? If it's a wart then i can say it got somehow reactivated being dormant and it wouldn't necessarily reveal my infidelity which is my main worry .

My affair partner tests frequently so I'm not overtly worried about siphilis and HIV. The only conocern left would be gonorrhea and chlamydia. You mention if I had gonorrea, I would have developed symptoms for sure within 5 days.

The only worry then  is chlamydia, but It sounds like I  wouldn't get that from oral sex anyway so if I get it, it would be from penetrative sex I had. Since I didn't have sex with my wife after that, she should not be at risk I believe?

Herpes:  Disregard the risk, which was zero for all practical purposes. The appearance of herpes is identical whether HSV1 or 2. Neither can be confused with warts. A new wart cannot appear sooner than several weeks after catching the HPV causing it.

Correct about gonorrhea:  absence of penile discharge and painful urination is nearly proof you weren't infected. As you said you understood last time, chlamydia is almost never acquired by oral sex. Correct, your wife would not be at risk.

"Seems like I wouldn't even need test for gonorrhea...?" That's a personal decision. The chance you have it with no symptoms probably is under one in a thousand. But if you want proof, you need testing.

I cannot and in any case would not otherwise help you "hide [your] indiscretion from [your] wife...." That's your problem, not the forum's responsibility.

HHH, MD

I think I will test for peace of mind at the 5 day mark for urine, do I need to provide the first sample in the morning to get accurate results? Should I worry about a false positive or those are not common? At this point I feel like a false  positive is more likely than a real positive. Today is day 3 and still don't have symptoms although I'm increasingly anxious about It and makes me hyper focused on sensations that may be otherwise normal. especially when I pee. I imagine there's no data for transition rates for such a short (5 second) exposure to unprotected vaginal combined to the fact that she tests frequently should be reassuring? And I apologize if this is a long follow up but if I decide to someday see her again and only engage in cunnilingus and kissing and fingering, mutual masturbating ( no fellatio or pemetration in anyway) would I need to test for something from time to time? 

Thanks 

There are no solid data on the exact time to reliable testing. But if 4 days is the only option, I suggest you go with it. Look at it this way:  the chance your partner had chlamydia, let's say 10%. If she did, the chance you caught it maybe 1% (if I correctly remember the nature of the contact). Now let's say the test would detect only 90% of infections at 4 days (i.e. 10% false negative). If you result is negative, the odds you actually have chlamydia would be 0.1 x 0.01 x 0.1 = 0.0001. That's one chance in 10,000. You could view that as genuinely negative, right?

All blood tests for gonorrhea and chlamydia are extremely inaccurate and not worth 10 cents if that were the fee.

Last week Monday  I had oral sex with her then unprotected vagina with my wife. This week I had 5 seconds unprotected with affair partner + oral sex and no sex with my wife since. 

The scenario is. If I had caught gonorrea last week, I would have developed syntomps within 5 days meaning I could have put my wife at risk but that didn't happen. If I develop sympyoms now or test positive for gonorrea that would mean I caught it this week and therefore my wife is not at risk, I can take antibiotics and not disclose anything to her. If I caught chlamydia, it would have been from the 5 seconds vagina sex this week not from the orla sex last week, means I would not have put my wife at risk either so I can use antibiotics and not disclose to her either. 

I have a lower back pain this morning close to the kidneys, is this a symptom of any STD? 

and finally I want to ask a common sense question. You mention almost all gonorrhea is symptomatic, for somebody to transmit it to another person orally to her throat, wouldn't he have symptoms that deterred him from oral sex? In other words, penis burns and there's discharge, the last thing you'd want to do is have oral sex, not sure why this is even common. Let's go ahead and say affair partner had it and didn't know because a swab wasn't recommended. How long will it take until the immune system clears it on its own? (ie: no longer contagious naturally) she mentions she never had anybody complained about symptoms after contact with her ever. I keep seeing only chlamydia transfered from oral sex indeed happens. If you have seen it, how frequently is it on average? 

If I stick to kissing and cunnilingus only with affair partner, is there something I'd be at risk at? How about mutual masturbation? Sorry for the long and last reply. With me luck on my test today please. 

You're really overboard on all this. No back pain is not an STD symptom. No antibiotics are necessary in this situation -- your risk of infection action is too low. Just wait for test results then deal with treatment if positive -- which will not happen.