[Question #1501] LGV?
93 months ago
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I'm 43y man. I have regular women partner and sometimes MSM contacts (never anal-penetrative). The last MSM contact was 2y ago. Few days later I developed herpes\folliculitis like upper trunk rash, mild clear morning discharge and right testicular discomfort, and tiny white dots in the mouth. Before symptoms occurred, I had sex with regular partner. The symptoms led to stress and fear. I received antibiotics before tests (ceftriaxone/azithromycin/ doxy/moxifloxacin). Rash resolved rapidly but other symptoms resolved after negative blood and urinePCR. STD specialist concluded that symptoms were viral infection and stress related. The next year I was OK but always thought about the possibility of STD transmission to my partner.
1y later: My partner had a small bump inside labia minor that was manually drained with one drop of sebacious content. My fear about STD came back with discomfort and discharge. We received ceftriaxone/ azithromycin. After antibiotics she started tiny small vulvar tears after every contact, constipation, tiny (1-2mm) anal mucosa tear on defecation. Gynecologist found candida and antifungals led to temporal effect. I also started tears on penis after intercourse. Additional ceftriaxone 1gr/azithromycin2gr/doxy200mg 18days only worsened symptoms. We tested negative (vaginal/urine PCR) and she had normal vulvoscopy. The symptoms stopped after antibiotics discontinuation. We have never had dysuria, lymphadenopathy, rectal discharge or tenesmus.
Last year I have right leg edema. Venous insufficiency was found, but laser treatment didn't improve edema. I found that edema may be LGV complication even without early signs. I recalled that 4 years ago I had small perianal abscess that was successfully surgically treated without recurrence or anal symptoms for 4 years(first operation led to fistula, and second resolved it completely).
Now we feel good. Sometimes I have morning clear discharge and right testicular minimal pain. Symptoms appear when I depressed and think about possible infection, or maybe I become depressed when they begin (I don't know what is the cause and what is the consequence). I had 4 tests and STD specialist said that I have nothing and this kind of discharge is normal. The only real and visible sign is leg edema. I have new (hope stupid) idea that edema is due to undiagnosed LGV and I'm just waiting for the emergence of new complications.
May leg edema or aforementioned symptoms be LGV signs?
May LGV be transmitted by oral, oral/anal, penis/anal touching without penetration?
How can I rule out LGV?
H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
93 months ago
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92 months ago
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Thank you for response.
I grew up in environment where homosexuality was prohibited like a crime. I thought that it is disease and tried to change my nature since teens. I'm married and love my wife very much, but cannot win myself. I had very short experience with males (never anal sex) and now I'm punished. I made this mistake and no one can judge me more than I judge myself.
STD specialist didn't know that my extramarital contact was with man and could make incorrect conclusions.
My main fear is that I put in risk my partner. She had consultation with best gynecologist and everything was normal including vulvoscopy. He found only candida. She was tested with vaginal PCR and urine PCR- all neg. I don't know if this is enough to rule out infections.
I had 5 HIV tests during this year and 2 tests for HBV, HCV, HSV and antitreponemal Ab- all neg (6 weeks and 1year after last exposure). Antitreponemal Ab result is not so clear for me. I received multiple antibiotics a few days after exposure. Is it possible that antibiotics led to neg results but did not prevent Treponema transmission to my partner through the only contact that was between exposure and treatment? Does this test mean that I had no syphilis? Do you think that we have to do additional tests (syphilis or other)?
I asked you about LGV, but I want to clarify one question. I have never had inguinal swelling and lymph nodes were normal on CT scan (abdomen and chest). As I read LGV may lead to genital swelling. May it lead to isolated leg swelling without preceding nodes swelling and without genital swelling? Vascular specialist sure that swelling is vein related, but he did not perform tests for lymph drainage. He said that US-Doppler findings and edema distribution (only calf without foot and toes) are signs of venous insufficiency and not lymphedema. We took doxy only for 18 days and not 21 as recommended (doxy was preceded by azithromycin). Should we take one more prolonged treatment?
My symptoms, including leg edema, are mild and in another situation I would not have paid attention. I obsessively search and read about STD and always find symptoms. Everything that we have I relate to possible STD.
Thank you.
H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
92 months ago
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H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
92 months ago
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92 months ago
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Thank you very much for your reply. I agree with everything you said. I'm sure that I most need is to make sure that I do not have an infection. Every time I get negative tests, I feel better, and so I understand that many of the symptoms are due to fear. All the tests have excluded infection, but I understand that there are no tests that can reliably exclude LGV.
Unilateral leg edema appeared 1 year after exposure. A week before the swelling I had a knee injury without fracture or ligament damage. One day prior to the appearance of edema, I took antibiotics (azithromycin 2gr and ceftriaxone1gr). I thought that the swelling can be due to injury or side effects of the antibiotic. 1 year passed, but edema is still here. So I started to think about LGV. Another explanation I have not found. I myself do not believe it. I'm very glad to know that you too do not believe that. I read case reports when complications (genital edema) appeared years after asymptomatic stage. I found case reports when LGV led to genital swelling but not to leg edema. I didn't find reports where leg edema was the only LGV presentation/complication.
I know that you answered all my questions but I want to use my third opportunity to talk with you and to reassure myself one more time.
Is it possible that perianal abscess that I had 4 years ago was bubonulus and resolved after surgery without antibiotics and without recurrence during 4 years? My LGV be silent for so long period?
May LGV lead to isolated leg edema without genital edema and without lymph node enlargement or pain?
Is doxy 100 bid 18 days (I took also azithromycin 5 days prior to doxy) sufficient for LGV? (I read that sometimes as long as 3 months of treatment is needed). May alcohol significantly reduce doxy effectiveness?
May symptoms related to infection stay unchanged for 1 year without improvement or worsening?
I am very grateful for all your answers. It was very important to know your opinion. Your opinion helps me more than any tests or consultation and more than harmful and, may be unnecessary antibiotics.
H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
92 months ago
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