[Question #1652] Oral By massage parlor therapist, STD

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92 months ago
I am a married man.  Last night went to a massage parlor in Florida.  Asian lady under 30 gave me unprotected oral sex for no more than 7-10 min.  I did not climax.  She also stuck her tongue in my anus, rimming.  This is the first time any of this EVER occurred.  I was expecting a massage.  She had no visible sores on her mouth.  Clearly, she is a professional given the cost.  She had a condum for sex but I declined.

Questions-

1.  what is the percentage chance I contracted any STD.  Please be specific.  Should I be worried?  

2.  Should I be tested?

3.  Can I assume normal unprotected sex with wife.
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
92 months ago

Welcome to the Forum.  I'll be glad to comment.  A substantial number of masseuses include provision of sexual services in their activities.  From the sounds of things, this was not something uncommon for the woman who provided your massage.  Thus she is at a somewhat higher risk for being infected with an STI than other casual partners.  Different sexual activities have different risks for STI.  there is no meaningful STI risk related to rimming.  There is a risk for STI from oral sex but that risk is low.

Your masseuse was a commercial sex worker (CSW).  Most CSWs do not have STIs and performance of oral sex only relatively rarely leads to infection.  When it does, the most common problems are either gonorrhea of non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU) caused by mouth organisms introduced in to the urethra during sex.  This sort of non-chlamydial NGU is not clearly and STI in the traditional sense, is not readily transmitted to sex partners like other STIs, and in not associated with complications.  In the Unitized Kingdom, many specialists do not treat NGU associated with oral sex.   As far as diagnosis is concerned, most people with these infections develop symptoms in the 2-7 days after exposure although a small proportion can occur without obvious symptoms,  Even when this occurs, gonorrhea  and most NGU can be easily tested for using a urine test.

The decision about testing is obviously your choice and depends on your level of concern.  The likelihood that you were infected is low and depending on your situation, it may be OK to wait and see if you develop symptoms.  If you develop symptoms, you should certainly be tested.  If you do not develop symptoms over the next few days, personally, I would not be worried, nor would I feel the need to abstain from sex with your wife. 

There is almost no risk of other STIs.  No one has ever acquired HIV from receipt of oral sex and both herpes and syphilis are quite rare.

I hope these comments are helpful to you.  EWH


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92 months ago
As a follow up, would I see signs or symptoms of an STI at least 5 days post experience?   what are the percentages I would experience some symptoms at least 5 days post experience.  I have had no symptoms so I am just asking in caution.
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
92 months ago
 I'm glad to hear that you have not experienced symptoms since your exposure. That is a good sign.  Following receipt of oral sex the infections which you are most likely to have acquired, if your partner was infected, are nongonococcal urethritis, gonorrhea and herpes. There is absolutely no risk of HIV and a minuscule risk of other STI's. 

 Among men who acquire diarrhea, over 90% develop symptoms within 3 to 5 days of exposure. For NGU development of symptoms may take longer on average up to 7 to 10 days.   Finally the majority of persons who acquire herpes following receipt of oral sex do develop symptoms and those symptoms are typically a parent in less than seven days following exposure (Most acquire symptoms and obviously symptoms)"in less than five days). 

 In summary there for the absence of symptoms in the past five days is strong evidence that you did not acquire NSTR from the infection you have mrntioned.

EWH
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