Dr H:

Thank you again for the discussion of how C and G can clear up over time.

One unfortunate additional piece of information: the most recent of these insertive unprotected oral episodes was more recent than 1 year ago'; in fact, it was more like 6 months ago.

Does this change the idea that: in the absence of any G, C or S symptoms or any others, i can feel confident i did not pass anything along to my wife in the past 6 months?

Regarding Syphilis, i read online that the long term effects can be quite damaging.  Again, i never once saw anything on my penis or had any discharge of any kind, at all.  It seems common consensus that G would have produced noticable symptoms.  But now my concern is Syphilis.

Is it possible i contracted this from the episode(s) of receiving unprotected oral sex from a female CSW and had no symptoms at all?

Essentially, what i have read from your forum and the SF clinic (where I was on business when this occurred), is that post exposure from receiving unprotected oral sex from a female CSW,  absence of symptoms within 6 weeks negates medical need for STD testing and one can return to normal sex life with wife as well.

Is that correct?

again, for some reason, i cannot see your answer?

very odd, it seems you have replied to this question, but your reply is not appearing here for me?

I didn't reply until now. Be a little patient -- the moderators aren't available 24/7.---

i see, thank you.  Sorry about that, but the system showed there was an update to my question, apparently erroneously.  Apologies!

But this post was mostly about Syphilis.

Is it also your opinion that no risk of Syphilis for me  given my exposure and lack of sypmtoms?  Is Syphilis very very rarely transmitted via receipt of unprotected oral sex, female to male?

I think one of the most disconcerting things about this stuff is all the mis/conflicting information on the internet.  It makes for much confusion, and I think the massive add value of what you and Dr Hook are doing is really quite huge.

And I thank you once again.

Oops, I neglected your question about syphilis. The chance was also near zero, first because heterosexual syphilis is so rare (by far the majority of cases, especially in the Bay Area, occurring in gay men); and as you seem to know, absence of a penile sore is strong evidence you weren't infected. I forget whether you had a syphilis blood test. If so, and if it was 6 weeks or more after the last exposure, then for sure you weren't infected. If not yet done, you should have a test now for reassurance. It will be negative.---

The initial update was simply that your question had been assigned to me. Often is is several hours later until a reply is posted, although it was sooner in this case. And I was posting the comment immediately above while you were writing your own reply, so they crossed in the mail. (Most discussions on this forum aren't in real time!)---

I do love 538.com.  That is an apt quotation.

To sum: for each Syphilis, Ghonorrea, and Chlamydia, absence of sores, pus, symptoms after 6 weeks given the insertive oral exposures is enough to discount them as me being a carrier.  No need to worry about testing (unless i have to have psychological assurance), no need to worry about having infected my wife (since i waited 2-3 weeks after each exposure looking for sypmtoms before resuming normal relations with her), and no need to test for any of the three at this point (unless i have to have psychological assurance)?

An excellent, accurate summary of my opinions and advice.---