I recently received oral sex from a woman of unknown status who claimed she did not have anything.  I'm sure this is probably a low risk event but I tend to be a germaphobe. 

This was Friday night and today, (Tuesday), I went to Quest labs and gave a urine sample for a Naat test for both gonorrhea and clamydia. 

As you perhaps know from reading other questions like yours, oral sex is safe sex, with a low risk of all STDs and zero risk for some. The chance you caught gonorrhea is very low and chlamydia close to zero. (There have been few if any proved cases, ever, of oral to penile chlamydia transmission.)

The NAATs for gonorrhea and chlamydia are very forgiving. When they first became available 20 years ago, the initial research specified first void rather than midstream urine specimens. Because that is how the tests were studied, the official marketing advice (by FDA regulations) specify first void. However, this doesn't mean that midstream specimens are not just as good; they probably are, and although in our STD clinic we ask patients to collect the first ounce of voided urine, I'm sure many misunderstand and we make no attempt to monitor it. In other words, the lab tech was wrong; but it probably dosn't matter much. However, you might do him or her, and the lab, a favor and send a printout of this discussion. Even if it doesn't really make much difference, they should follow proper test procedures!)

A more important issue is the timing of your test. The gonorrhea component of the NAAT probably is fully sensitive by 3 days, but it may take a bit longer for chlamydia (e.g. 5 days). OTOH, as noted above, there is no realistic risk of chlamydia from this exposure. But I thought you should know.

I hope this information is helpful. Let me know if anything isn't clear.

HHH, MD

Given my situation, would you recommend that I retake the test in a couple of days or do you think that  it is totally unneeded?  

It's not too soon for gonorrhea symptoms, which usually would have started by now. Although asymptomatic gonorrhea occurs (I am the first modern researcher on asymptomatic gonorrhea in men), it is rare:  at least 95% of urethral gonorrhea causes obvious symptoms. Let's do a quick probabilities analysis:  chance your partner had oral gonorrhea, probably no higher than 1%. Chance you caught it if she had it, 10%. Chance you were infected without symptoms, 5%. Chance the urine test missed it:  1%. Thus, the chance you now have urethral gonorrhea is 0.01 x 0.1 x 0.05 x 0.01 = 0.0000005. That's 1 chance in 2 million. In other words, zero.

If somehow I had been in your situation, I would not have been tested at all and I would never have stopped having sex with my wife. You can and should proceed without worry.

 I do realize that it is a lesser risk but she did "deepthroat" me and I figured that may have brought me closer to the source of bacteria if she had it. She and her husband are swingers but claim to get tested often. Does that change your opinion on me retesting?  

That completes the two follow-up comments and replies included with each thread, and so concludes this discussion. Best wishes and stay safe!