[Question #2554] Oraquick
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96 months ago
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Hello, I was just wondering about the accuracy of Oraquick advance is at 9.5 weeks is? I have taken 3 tests 1 at 8.5 weeks and 2 and 9.5 weeks.
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
96 months ago
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Welcome to our Forum. Your three tests are strong but not absolute evidence that you did not get HIV from an exposure 9.5 weeks earlier. At the present time combination HIV antigen/antibody tests provide definitive answers within 6 weeks of exposure and standard antibody blood tests are completely accurate after 8-9 weeks but it occasionally takes a bit longer for oral fluid tests to become positive. Results of oral fluid tests are definitive at 12 weeks after the last exposure.
Evaluation the likelihood of having HIV is also influenced by the nature of exposure. The lower risk the exposure, the more likely a negative OraQuick test at 9.5 weeks is to be accurate.
I hope this comment is helpful. If there are other questions or if you want to clarify the nature of your exposure, I would be happy to comment further. EWH
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96 months ago
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Exposure was brief vaginal incourse lasting no more than 45 seconds without ejaculation with a male who states he his HIV negative, but I am not sure. Also, during that exposure I unknowingly had a chlamydial infection.
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
96 months ago
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Thanks for the additional details. They help. If you partner said he was HIV negative, he probably was. The HIV rate in men who do not have male sex partners is far less than 1%. Further, even if he was (unlikely as I said) your risk for infection from a single episode of vaginal sex was less than 1 infection per 1000 sex acts. Thus considering the statistical likelihood that you partner did not have HIV, the low risk for infection associated with a single act of intercourse and your current negative test results, I would put the likelihood that a future test for HIV related to this exposure is less than 1 in a million and probably considerably lower. I hope this is helpful. I would not be worried at all if I were you. EWH
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96 months ago
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Dr. Ive read having a concurrent STI can increase the risk of acquiring HIV. Do the statistics you mention still hold for your assessment on my risk?
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
96 months ago
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I took that into consideration. the presence of chlamydia is associated with a 2-3 fold increase in risk IF exposed (from about 1 infection in 2500 exposures to 1 in 1000) . That does not change the other variable however (i.e. test performance or that low likelihood that your partner had HIV). Still less than 1 in a million chance. EWH
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96 months ago
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I understand. Also, is it thought that pre-ejaculate fluid would make it even less of a risk?
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
96 months ago
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Pre-ejaculatory fluid from HIV infected persons does contain less HIV than ejaculate but can still transmit infection. That still does not change my counsel to you.
As per Forum guidelines, this will be my final reply. The Forum permits up to 3 responses per question. This is the 3rd. Please do not worry. EWH
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