Hi Terri-

My boyfriend bas not been tested for HSV 2, so periodically I check myself for signs of infection just in case. My question is- If I recently contracted GHSV2 (where my body has not built up antibodies) and I was touching/examining my genitals when no sores were found/present, but I could have been shedding, then I touched my mouth/chin where there was acne, what are the chances that I autoinoculated my face/mouth with HSV 2?

Here's what happened. 

I self checked vaginal area for sores. Saw nothing abnormal. No sores. I then washed my hands briefly with diluted soap. I dried my hands on a towel, then applied liquid foundation to my face, near my mouth, possibly touched/rubbed lips, and over acne on my chin. I guess my only concern is whether or not there was enough soap to kill any possible virus before I touched my face/lips/acne. It was a dispenser filled with water mixed with little soap left in the bottom of the container. 

My understanding and rationale is that no, this is not a means of transmission. For one, my boyfriend has not ever had a genital outbreak and there were no sores present on my vagina during my self exam. I then washed my hands with (a small amount) of soap which I know is affective in killing HSV. Then I dried my hands on a towel before touching my face. All of these factors makes this scenario a zero risk. Am I correct?

Side note: I am learning how to combat irrationality with logic and scientific information which is my purpose in posting this question. I realize the purpose of this forum is not to aid anxious/OCD individuals in their coping strategies; however, I find that the more I learn the more I can protect myself and think logically. 

Thank you!

Sorry to double post, but I figured if I asked my second question before my first is answered then I will take up less of your time asking as a follow up. 

This morning I used the restroom and before washing my hands I absentmindedly picked/scratched at a new pimple on my face. The skin doesn't appear to be open, as it did not bleed- but my same question applies as earlier. Is this a means for transmission of HSV 2 from the genitals to the face? Mainly I just want to know that absentmindedly rubbing/scratching/touching my face or mouth after any encounter with my genitals (scratching, the restroom etc..) won't result in autoinoculation if I have a new infection I'm not yet aware of. I thank you for putting my mind at ease with facts. 

I would like to provide some background and ask another question, but before doing so I would like to recap. So, to be clear:

1) Auto inoculation is hard to do because it requires a certain amount of virus. Because of this, even  if I did have newly acquired HSV2, it would be highly unlikely to infect myself on the face through touching/scratching/rubbing after using the restroom in general, but ESPECIALLY if I wash my hands afterwards. 

2) I used the restroom again today and, using a finger on the hand I used to clean myself, I scratched and rubbed an itch inside my nose (where there are mucous membranes) BEFORE I washed my hands. For the reason above, this is still a zero-risk scenario because there wouldn't be enough virus for infection. In general, I can stop worrying about circumstances like this because it would require more than this interaction to self-infect.

Just one more question:

As you know, I was tested for HSV2 in May of this year, 2017. It was negative .05. The only encounter I had between my negative HSV2 result in 2014 and beginning a sexual relationship with my boyfriend in April 2017, was the experience I described to you in a previous post. I engaged in frottage with a man I was dating. Grinding/dry humping each other while I was wearing leggings. I cannot remember if he was wearing any clothing from the waist down. I believe he was wearing boxers, but let's assume he was naked. You said herpes transmission does not occur through clothing, so this was zero risk and I did not need another blood test to confirm this.  Despite this, like I said above I was tested again and it was negative. I was, however, on Valtrex for 3 months straight prior to this test. I know Valtrex can cause a false negative, but I believe in previous posts you said that is true for NEW infection, that old infection off medication would produce antibodies that continue to be made. Well after the frottage experience, I was not taking Valtrex for roughly 16 months (Nov 2015-January 2017) except for 1-2 days at the time of any given cold sore outbreak.  

3) Because I had enough time to produce antibodies beginning from Nov 2015-Jan 2017 before starting Valtrex  in Feb 2017, coupled with the fact that the frottage experience is not a means for herpes transmission, can I confidently believe my results in May 2017 were truly negative?

**I realize that since I began having sex with my boyfriend in Apr 2017 that these particular results were given too soon to detect any NEW infection from him (if I was even exposed). I am more concerned with knowing I was negative BEFORE my current relationship given my history. If I were to acquire GHSV2 in the future, I will know undoubtedly I received it FROM my boyfriend, whom I genuinely love and would stay with anyway. I just want no doubts that I wasn't the one who will have brought it into the relationship should this issue come up in the future.

2013 and 2014 NEGATIVE HSV2 <.20

ONLY frottage experience in 2015 with leggings on

No oral sex or intercourse of any kind until April 2017 with current bf.

Negative result in May 2017 .05.

I guess the real issue is this for me. I know I came into the relationship STD free (assuming you confirm question 3 to be accurate). My bf is my first sexual partner since 2013, so I have not had to worry about STDs for a very long time.  Having begun a new sexual relationship has brought on anxiety unlike any I have ever known. I simply wish to remain free of disease and, though I do not believe my boyfriend is actually infected, not having a test  causes me to be a hyper-aware, sometimes to a flaw. I appreciate your patience and kindness, as always. I realize my posts are sometimes illogical and driven by fear, but the truth is I am actually a level-headed and successful person and I just want to protect myself. I appreciate you answering my questions both on auto inoculation and for clarifying what I already believe to be accurate. I thank you for everything.

3) Assuming I WAS infected during frottage in 2015,  because I had enough time to produce antibodies beginning from Nov 2015-Jan 2017 before starting Valtrex  for supression in Feb 2017 can I confidently believe my results in May 2017 were truly negative?