I am a male, on March 4^th, I received unprotected oral sex from another man.  I ejaculated into his throat. In this environment, he was performing these acts with multiple men (in a row, not group).   I am unware of his STD status. On March 24^th, I had unprotected sex with my wife (pull out, saliva as lubrication).  After ejaculating, I noticed a slight burning sensation. It faded away. Over the next few days, I then started to feel a burning/tingle sensation after urination.  Of course, I am much more attuned to penile sensations. Since the 24^th, I have had sporadic burning/tingling sensations at the tip.  Sometimes it comes and goes, sometimes it stays. Sometimes it would be a cold sensation.  I have no other STD symptoms. I never experienced burning/tingling during urination, always after. Because of the nature of the 3/4 encounter, and the unprotected sex with my wife, I go to the county STD clinic on 3/28.  The do the normal STD tests.  Urine dip to see about a UTI.  The doctor said that based on the symptom it might be chlamydia. She said it was probably not gonorrhea because there is no discharge.  So, she went ahead and gave me the single dose of Azithromycin. I was told that due to the holiday (today 3/30), the results would not be available until 4/6.  That upsets me, so on 3/29, I go to a private lab and get a chlamydia and gonorrhea test, 17 hours after taking the antibiotic, the results will be available in a few days. I have a hard time reconciling the 3/4 encounter with this being an incredible coincidence.  1) Does this symptom present as an STD infection? 2) Does the behavior of the male in the 3/4 encounter up the risk of transmission of oral sex? I am sure all his male partners go for unprotected oral, and I am sure he swallows ejaculations. 3) If I were infected how what is the probability of transmission with my wife in that single encounter? 4) Will an antibiotic effect a chlamydia and gonorrhea test 17 hours after administration? 5) I understand that many people can be asymptomatic and experience different symptoms.  In the case of gonorrhea, what is the likelihood of my symptom but with no discharge?

Welcome to the forum. Thanks for your question. You can relax:  all is well; almost certainly you have no STD.---

Thank you. I will post the results when received.  I do have a follow up about chlamydia. Obviously, if one researches symptoms online, every disease is possible any means.  But many government or academic sites suggest oral transmission is possible. Are they just adding that in to promote condom usage?

 

Thanks for th excellent question, which gives me an opportunity for a blog-like comment that may be useful in future replies as well.At the same time, we have always known that chlamydia occasionally can be identified in the throat. and recent studies using improved diagnostics (DNA testing) show it's more common than previously believed. But it's still far less common than genital or rectal chlamydia, and a lot less common than oral gonorrhea. And even with the better tests, to my knowledge there still have been no reported cases of chlamydia that could only have been acquired by oral sex. That doesnt prove it can't happen (if it's in the throat, why not?) but it's strong evidence that it is rare. For all these reasons, CDC rcurrently ecommends against any routine oral testing for chlamydia. It's just not common enough or important enough to be worth the effort. That could change as new data emerge -- but that's the current state of our understanding.is---

This might be redundant, or unnecessary, but do your thoughts apply to NGU as well?

Not at all. NGU is a fairly commonly acquired by oral exposure. But your symptoms don't suggest NGU, which usually causes discharge, not pain, as the main symptom. Second, NGU from oral sex probably is often caused by entirely normal oral bacteria and probably not harmful to partners. Finally, azithromycin is the main treatment for it -- so if that were the problem, you've already been treated.---