About 6.5 months ago I had a weekend encounter with an on again/off again partner. About 9 days after the weekend encounter I noticed what appeared to be an initial outbreak, which included a small cluster of blisters on the base of my shaft, swollen lymph nodes in my groin and some really sensitive skin/nervous system on the one side of my upper body; it almost hurt to touch (which to me was odd because the outbreak was below the waist). Nonetheless after a swab test I was told it was HSV1. My partner and I had used protection during intercourse and the outbreak happened where the protection may not have been. After digging into this further with her she told me she used to have cold sores as a kid but can’t remember having any since elementary school, so we aren’t certain if I contracted this from her orally or genitally (although through my reading it appears ghsv1 to ghsv1 is extraordinarily rare). As well, and just to note, I have never had HSV1 or 2 present in an IGG blood test, and I had been tested multiple times over a 10 year period. Upon receiving the results of her blood work, it appeared she was present for hsv1 (as we expected) and negative for 2. Now my one question stems from the contraction, she never gave me oral that weekend (and we hadn’t been together since 4 months prior) but twice she used some of her saliva ‘from mouth to hand to ‘me’ ‘(unprotected). Is there anyway for us to be absolutely certain that she gave it to me through the oral route or genital route without ‘to her knowledge’ her showing any physical symptoms whatsoever in either place in the past 10 years? If it is the former, I have to assume I was just ridiculously unlucky.

As well and to add another twist I just did IGG blood work (2 weeks ago) and I’m told that I’m negative for both 1 and 2. Should I presume I fall into the hsv1 false positive rate considering both the swab test and physical symptoms during the initial outbreak (I’ve had no outbreaks since the initial)?