[Question #3900] 3889 Clarification / Testing results

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85 months ago
Dr. H, 
I believe I wasn't clear in my follow up question on #3889. This exposure also contained a few minutes of fellatio. That is why I had a follow up question, it was not just analingus. My last line of questioning was based on the oral to penile exposure, which I feel may not have been fully considered upon your last answers. With this in mind, perhaps that changes your answers? I don't intend on posting more about it, I just want to be clear and get a definitive answer as best I can. 

Speaking about fallatio with a massage parlor woman: 

1) Does this change anything about the interpretation of the + Luekocyte at home UTI test this morning as previously asked, 13 weeks post exposure? Is it a reliable indicator of infection, or could it be normal in the male urethra?
2) You say they are meant for women, meaning they have no real use for men at all?  What about comparatively to the urinalysis in the doctor's office? 
3) When you said not std related, I assume you mean to trust the gon/chl test. However, would Leukocytes show for NGU, UU, or any other bacterial issue that could arise from fellatio? I don't have urinary problems like UTI's usually bring forth. I'm concerned about infecting my partner. 
4) Yes, the urinalysis' that I did receive in the doctors office were negative for leukocytes, weeks ago. Could that change now to positive weeks later? There was no advice from the doctor at that time, perhaps maybe a little prostatitis which he gave me Cipro for. He did not find any infection and said the prostate felt normal, urinalysis was normal. I believed it to be CPPS and the anal/prostate symptoms have diminished likely proving that.   Is the presentation of stomach cramping, cloudy urine in the morning, and a positive leukocyte test on a home strip (with negative doctor office tests) be a result of the fellatio received 13 weeks ago?

thank you, and I will not continue to post about it. I just wanted to be clear, and yes, I'm petrified. 

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85 months ago
Update: I used another strip and the result was clearly negative on each. 

I held my urine for 4 hours. Would that be comparative to first morning urine or is that morning urine much different because of sleep? 
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H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
85 months ago
You're right, I neglected the oral contact. My apology. However, it remains true that no STD ever is the cause of any of the sorts of symptoms you describe, or variations in the appearance of urine. As I said in the other thread, the weakly positive urine leukocyte esterase (WBC) test could indicate a UTI, but that is not an STD nor likely to be acquired by oral sex. And it's very unlikel for that test to go back and forth between positive and negative in the presence of an actual infection.

1) As just implied, this information doesn't change my assessment or recommendations.

2) There simply are no data on how well the test works in males with various kinds of urinary tract infection/inflammation (gonorrhea, chlamydia, NGU, prostatitis, UTI, others). A strongly and consistently positive result probably is legitimate evidence of inflammation or infection. Beyond that, I just cannot say what the results might mean.

3) NGU causes discharge as the main symptom. UU is not a pathogen, but normal bacteria in the urinary tract. It also is not carried in the mouth and hence cannot be acquired by oral sex. Same for other known causes of NGU, such as Mycoplasma genitalium. Gonorrhea and chlamydia always show up on the tests you had. 

4) I have nothing more to advise about your symptoms and their possible causes. Clearly you have no STD, which is the only topic for this forum. If these things continue and/or you remain concerned about them, all I can do is repeat my advice you continue to follow up with direct medical care. Neither this nor any other online forum is going to be able to take this any further than we have.

We have exhausted all my advice. I won't have anything more to say. Sorry.

HHH, MD
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85 months ago
Dr,
There seems to be cases easily found online of men experiencing prostatitis symptoms, or NGU symptoms after oral sex only, that find out that UU is the culprit through PCR or DNA testing. Is this becoming an issue that perhaps hasn’t been studied yet?

I had stomach cramping a week or so after my experience, followed by CPPS symptoms, followed now by a crampy/painful stomach for over a week now. My wife is now complaining about stomach pain as well. I’m curious to know if UU/myco actually could be consider transmissible via oral sex? Apparently, labs are finding it in people with symptoms. Thanks for any insight...
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H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
85 months ago
That such cases can occur says nothing about how frequent they are. It would be like determining the risk for being struck by lightning by surveying only people who were, without considering the giant number of people potentially "exposed" (e.g. outdoors during thunderstorms). Such reports cannot distinguish between coincidence and causality. And since UU is present in up to half of all sexually active persons, its presence in someone with particular symptoms says nothing about whether it is a cause of those symptoms, or when it was acquired.

Neither your nor your wife's symptoms are consistent with any scientific data that suggest sexual acquisition or that you and she are sharing any STD. And certainly ureaplasma causes no such symptoms.
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85 months ago
Ok, thank you for that. There are a lot of folks online who have had prostate issues after oral sex, and kept down the road of a bacterial cause which produced a positive result for pathogenic bacteria. My urologist doesn’t seem interested in chasing that theory. I am experiencing intermittent “golf ball” and anus pain in the prostate region, not every day. This began directly after oral sex/analingus with a csw.  My questions:

1. If I assume it’s cpps and anxiety related, but there is indeed UU, myco,  e. coli, or e faecalis, would I be putting my partner at risk? (These are the culprits being reportedly found) We will be trying to conceive very soon, and have 1 child already. I’ve read these could cause pregnancy problems. 

2. If indeed the pathogens above were present, and I did not treat, would they spread to other areas of the body causing illness?

3. If any of those pathogens were indeed acquired during an oral sex event 14 weeks ago, would they have to begin with urethritis symptoms and/or bladder infection, etc? I did not experience discharge or dysuria. Could they be asymptomatic in the lower genital tract, only to be symptomatic all the way in the prostate? And if indeed passed to my regular partner, would she usually present with vaginal symptoms?

Thank you for answering my final questions and thank you for your service. 
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H. Hunter Handsfield, MD
85 months ago
The problem in your understanding (not a criticism, you're not alone) is that all these are entirely normal bacteria in various parts of the body. They may cause inflammation if they get in the wrong place, e.g. E. coli is the most common overall cause of urinary tract infections but is entirely normal in the gastrointestinal tract. And none of them normally inhabits the mouth or throat, and therefore none are ever transmitted by oral sex. Should you test positive, it will not be because you acquired them in that fashion.

1) Probably any such tests will be negative and your partner would not be at risk. Even if in your urinary tract, they are routinely present in entirely healthy people. Some of them Most likely your sex partner(s) already are carrying the same organisms, without health problems.

2) No, they will not spread from urinary tract to anywhere else.

3) As noted above, there is no possibility of acquiring these bacteria by oral sex.

That concludes this thread, which should be your last one on these topics. I hope the discussion has been helpful and allows you to move on without worry, and without further testing. All is well!
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