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Hi. Thank you for your help. I was at a routine gynecology appt in 2006 when coincidentally I had one small bump that I thought was from shaving. Doctor said it didn’t look like anything, but to be sure she swabbed it and the test came back positive. I never would have known otherwise. I have had since then maybe 5 or 6 similar bumps with slight tenderness but no other symptoms. Very mild symptoms, which is why I referred to it as “mostly” asymptomatic.  The strange thing is, back in 2006 I had unprotected sex with my boyfriend the night before that doctor appt with bump present, and I did not transmit the virus to him. As for the present incident in question, I hope that having no present symptoms, having been 5 days on valicyclovir twice a day, and the length of time since acquiring the infection are hopeful indications against the chances of having transmitted the virus. Final tonight: is it true that the majority of cases go unrecognized or unknown or without symptoms? Thanks for your help and your knowledge! 

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Thank you. I have a follow up question: I continued on valicyclovir 500 mg once a day, rather than the 500 mg 2x a day, and may have missed a day or 2 within the 5 day period before having relations with partner. I was on period and we did not put a condom on but did not have penetrative sex, but did have genital contact. an hour later I felt a tenderness in area that symptoms arise but before contact felt nothing. Thinking it may be psychosomatic but still tender. Question is: 1) does missing dose or doses eliminate protection and 2) can symptom pop up that quickly and 3)can lack of penetration lower transmission risk?

Also, if there was the very beginning of an outbreak present, does that guarantee transmission? 

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