Welcome to the Forum.  Your text is a little hard to follow.  From your question it appears that in the past two months ago you have had a number of tests for chlamydia, only one of which, a single urine antigen test was positive.  Whether that test was correct or not is questionable since the next day a repeat test was negative and since acquisition of chlamydia from oral sex is very, very uncommon but, irrespective, at about that time you and your wife were both treated with azithromycin which should have been highly effective if you were infected.   You may have been re-exposed on December 17 and since December 26 a week after rectal sex,  have had urinary symptoms.   You have had negative tests for chlamydia and other STIs and have taken both azithromycin and fosfamycin.  You ask whether or not you or your wife might be infected with chlamydia or whether your rectal sex may have caused your symptoms.

    Rectal sex can lead to urinary tract infections and this may or may or may not explain your recent symptoms.  You do not mention whether or not your wife has been tested for chlamydia or for other partners.  My suspicion is that you are not infected with chlamydia and that your symptoms may be related to bacteria acquired by rectal sex.  You need to establish your current infection status.  I suggest that you and your wife both need be tested to understand what is going on.

I hope this reply is helpful.  EWH