I was recently diagnosed with Ureaplasma. Here is my history:

I was sexually abstinent from July 2010 until March 2016. In March 2016, I met my current partner, who is married. Our relationship is monogamous in the regards that I do not and have not had sex with anyone else and he has sex with his wife and me (without her knowledge).

I was screened for all STI’s prior to starting the relationship and everything was negative including Ureaplasma. I have my results in-hand so I know that I was screened for Ureaplasma. I continued annual screenings – April 2017, no Ureaplasma. Again, May 2018, no Ureaplasma. I recently suffered a terrible vaginal infection and went to my doctor. She told me in the office that it looked like I had an STI and she treated me in the office. When my results came back, I only tested positive for Ureaplasma. She told me that it is not considered an STI; however, it is passed sexually and very contagious. And, since my previous tests were negative, I was recently infected and that all parties involved should be treated if we wanted to permanently get rid of it.

My partner and I are very upset. I have not been with anyone else and neither has he besides his wife. My partner believes the following: the ureaplasma was dormant or inactive and something changed with my natural vaginal flora that allowed it to get out of balance. This caused the infection and positive test. However, my doctor tells me this isn’t possible. She says based upon all of the negative tests that we were all newly infected by someone else. She says my negative tests prove that we did not have this from March 2016 through May 2018. She says even if someone is asymptomatic but carries the bacteria, the test will always be positive.

Can you help us? Based upon my history, is my doctor correct? Is the only possible explanation for this positive result is that we were infected by someone other than the three of us after May 2018?